benorin
Dec3-05, 06:33 AM
I have long wondered if the following relation can be proven and/or interpeted geometrically:
\sin(x)=x\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \left( 1-\frac{x^2}{k^{2}\pi^{2}}\right)
I am no proper geometer, and I have only this concept of the geometric meaning of a product involving trig functions:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/f/fb/Circle-trig6.png
Anyone?
\sin(x)=x\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \left( 1-\frac{x^2}{k^{2}\pi^{2}}\right)
I am no proper geometer, and I have only this concept of the geometric meaning of a product involving trig functions:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/f/fb/Circle-trig6.png
Anyone?