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Dale
May2-06, 05:00 AM
In <The Classical Theory of Fields> (P29,chapter 2 section 10) when
talking about transformation of distribution function, Landau says
that:
the element of hypersurface is a four-vector directed along the normal
to the hypersurface; in our case the direction of the normal obviously
coincides with the direction of the fourvector p_i,From this if follows
that the ratio dp_xdp_ydp_z/epsilon is an invariant quantity.

this is also told in QFT with delta function when integral it.

I just can't understand this mathematica above, could anyone explain it
in detail, or recommend some math books for me?

thanks a lot!

Arkadiusz Jadczyk
May4-06, 05:00 AM
On Tue, 2 May 2006 08:03:59 +0000 (UTC), "Dale" <hairuo@gmail.com>
wrote:

>In <The Classical Theory of Fields> (P29,chapter 2 section 10) when
>talking about transformation of distribution function, Landau says
>that:
>the element of hypersurface is a four-vector directed along the normal
>to the hypersurface; in our case the direction of the normal obviously
>coincides with the direction of the fourvector p_i,From this if follows
>that the ratio dp_xdp_ydp_z/epsilon is an invariant quantity.
>
>this is also told in QFT with delta function when integral it.
>
>I just can't understand this mathematica above, could anyone explain it
>in detail, or recommend some math books for me?
>
>thanks a lot!

If you want just the result, not necessarily the way it is derived in
Landau, then there is a simple method through the formalism of
differential forms.
The 4-form d^4 p is invariant because Lorentz transformations
are of determinant one. Then d^3p is the result of the application of
the vector d/dp^0=d/dE to d^4 p . Thus follows the transformation law as
in Landau

ark
--

Arkadiusz Jadczyk
http://quantumfuture.net/quantum_future/jadpub.htm
--

Andreas Moser
May5-06, 05:00 AM
Dale wrote:
> coincides with the direction of the fourvector p_i,From this if follows
> that the ratio dp_xdp_ydp_z/epsilon is an invariant quantity.
>
> this is also told in QFT with delta function when integral it.

I think the answer is in the book 'Generalized functions', Vol. 1, by
Gelfand and Shilov. They show how to work with a delta function delta(P)
with P = x^2 - t^2 (similar for momentum variables).

Essentially this gives a new integral over the surface P=0 (in two
parts) with a new volume element with dP in the denominator.

Andreas

Arkadiusz Jadczyk
May6-06, 05:00 AM
On Thu, 4 May 2006 05:42:49 +0000 (UTC), Arkadiusz Jadczyk
<arkiREMOVETHIS@ANDTHIScassiopaea.org> wrote:

>If you want just the result, not necessarily the way it is derived in
>Landau, then there is a simple method through the formalism of
>differential forms.
>The 4-form d^4 p is invariant because Lorentz transformations
>are of determinant one. Then d^3p is the result of the application of
>the vector d/dp^0=d/dE to d^4 p . Thus follows the transformation law as
>in Landau
>
>ark

In fact, my answer above is wrong. What I wrote concerns a different
question. To use the above method to answer your question, let us
suppose, to get calculation shorter, that we have only p_0,p_1,p_2 (I
skip p_3). The vector is supposed to be on the mass hyperboloid

p0^2 -p_1^2-p_2^2=m^2 (1)

p0 is also denoted as E

p0=E.

We parametrize the hyperboloid by p_1,p_2,p_3 alone.

In these coordinates on the hyperboloid the tangent vectors (to the
hyperboloid) are

d/dp_1, d/dp_2

(For simplicity I am using d/dp for partial derivatives)

But in the 4D momentum space these tangent vectors have also
0-component.

You can check that these tangent vectors in 4D are

d/dp1+(p1/p0)d/dp0, d/dp2+(p2/p0)d/dp0

(I am writing p1 instead of p^2 etc)

Now, differentiating the hyperboloid equation

p_mu p^mu = m^2

you see that the vector orthogonal to the hyperboloid at (p1,p2), and of
"length" m, is (p0,p1,p2) - it is like on the sphere where the radius
vector is orthogonal to the surface.

The 3-form dx0^dx1^dx2 is Lorentz invariant in 4D space. To get from the
invariant 2-form on the mass shell we insert the radius vector p_mu.

So, let's calculate: we want to compute our invariant 3-form on two
tangent vectors, so we calculate the exterior product of the two tangent
vectors and the normal vector

V=(p0d/dp0+p1d/dp1+p2d/dp2) /\ (d/dp1+(p1/p0)d/dp_0) /\
(d/dp2+(p2/p_0)d/dp_0)

Simple calculation using wedge product gives (*)

(1 - (p1^2+p2^2)/E) d/dp0 /\ d/dp1 /\ d/dp2 /\ d/dp3 =(E^2-p1^2-p2^2) /E
d/dp0 /\ d/dp1 /\ d/dp2 /\ d/dp3 = (m^2/E) d/dp0 /\ d/dp1 /\ d/dp2 /\
d/dp3

Applying the invariant 3-form dx0^dx1^dx2 to this 3-vector (and skipping
the constant m^2) we get 1/E. This is the same as applying the form

(1/E) dx1/\Dix^2 on the hyperboloid to the vector d/dp1 /\ d/dp2 along
the coordinate lines p1,p2 on the hyperboloid.

Thus answer:

The invariant form on the hyperboloid, coordinatized by p1,p2 is

(1/E) dx1/\Dix^2

Adding one more dimension does not change anything. The only funny part
is the calculation of the wedge product where one has to pay attention
to the order of factors. That is how the sign "minus" gets into the
formula (*)

ark

--

Arkadiusz Jadczyk
http://quantumfuture.net/quantum_future/jadpub.htm
--

Hendrik van Hees
May6-06, 05:00 AM
Dale wrote:

> In <The Classical Theory of Fields> (P29,chapter 2 section 10) when
> talking about transformation of distribution function, Landau says
> that:
> the element of hypersurface is a four-vector directed along the normal
> to the hypersurface; in our case the direction of the normal obviously
> coincides with the direction of the fourvector p_i,From this if
> follows that the ratio dp_xdp_ydp_z/epsilon is an invariant quantity.
>
> this is also told in QFT with delta function when integral it.
>
> I just can't understand this mathematica above, could anyone explain
> it in detail, or recommend some math books for me?

It's about integrals of (scalar) functions of four momentum constrained
by the on-shell condition p_mu p^mu=p^2=m^2 (I use the west-coast
metric, i.e., g=diag(1,-1,-1,-1) and set c=1).

Obviously the integral

I=int d^4 p theta(p0) delta(p^2-m^2) f(p)

is an invariant under orthochronous Lorentz transformations, where
"orthochronous" means such Lorentz transformations which do not change
the direction of time, i.e. {L^0}_0>=1.

Now you can write

p^2-m^2=p0^2-\vec{p}^2-m^2=p0^2-eps^2, eps=sqrt(m^2+\vec{p}^2)

where \vec{p} are the three spatial components.

The Dirac-Delta distribution of a function f(p0) which has only simple
zeroes, p0i, fulfills the formula

delta[f(p0)]=\sum_{i} 1/|f'(p0i)| \delta(p0-p0i)

In our case there is only 1 zero (note the theta function in the
integral!):

theta(p0) \delta(p^2-m^2)=theta(p0)/(2 eps) \delta(p0-eps),

and this yields finally

I=\int d^3 \vec{p}/(2 eps) f(p)|_{p0=eps}.

This shows that d^3\vec{p}/eps is an invariant.

You can also prove this directly by doing the Lorentz transformation
directly (do not forget the Jacobian for the three-dimensional
momenum-volume element!).

--
Hendrik van Hees Texas A&M University
Phone: +1 979/845-1411 Cyclotron Institute, MS-3366
Fax: +1 979/845-1899 College Station, TX 77843-3366
http://theory.gsi.de/~vanhees/faq mailto:hees@comp.tamu.edu