Ray Tomes
May31-06, 04:00 AM
Way back in the previous millennium, Ted Bunn wrote
a long explanation concerning the length of wavetrain
of a single photon and stored it on the internet at
http://www.lns.cornell.edu/spr/1999-02/msg0014640.html
where I just found it. Thank you Ted!
This got me thinking and I started messing about from
Delta x . Delta p <= h/2 to successively substitute
things for p like E and then f until I ended up with ...
Delta x . Delta f <= c/2 (yes, the h disappeared).
and I guess that if wavenumber is substituted for f then
it gets even simpler (I left this tiny step for the
dear reader to check that you are awake).
In this form, and armed with Ted's explanation, the
equation is not in the least mysterious. Rather, it
says that for a wave train of some length the number of
waves present is determined to an accuracy of 1/2
(or maybe its 1/2 a radian).
In such a form then it is a simple mathematical
statement about Fourier analysis which is not in the
least bit surprising. Is this simplicity understood
by quantum mechanics? Doesn't this mean that from such
a simply obvious mathematical fact it is then an easy
task to go backwards through the steps and derive
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle?
Why didn't they explain it this way in school?
Thanks again Ted Bunn.
--
Ray Tomes
http://ray.tomes.biz/
http://www.cyclesresearchinstitute.org/
a long explanation concerning the length of wavetrain
of a single photon and stored it on the internet at
http://www.lns.cornell.edu/spr/1999-02/msg0014640.html
where I just found it. Thank you Ted!
This got me thinking and I started messing about from
Delta x . Delta p <= h/2 to successively substitute
things for p like E and then f until I ended up with ...
Delta x . Delta f <= c/2 (yes, the h disappeared).
and I guess that if wavenumber is substituted for f then
it gets even simpler (I left this tiny step for the
dear reader to check that you are awake).
In this form, and armed with Ted's explanation, the
equation is not in the least mysterious. Rather, it
says that for a wave train of some length the number of
waves present is determined to an accuracy of 1/2
(or maybe its 1/2 a radian).
In such a form then it is a simple mathematical
statement about Fourier analysis which is not in the
least bit surprising. Is this simplicity understood
by quantum mechanics? Doesn't this mean that from such
a simply obvious mathematical fact it is then an easy
task to go backwards through the steps and derive
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle?
Why didn't they explain it this way in school?
Thanks again Ted Bunn.
--
Ray Tomes
http://ray.tomes.biz/
http://www.cyclesresearchinstitute.org/