eljose79
Apr25-03, 05:20 AM
Could it be calculated that way?..for example take a gravitational classic wave DHab=0, then by proposing a plane wave solution like that
Hab=AabExp(KaXb) being Aab a tensor we would have the constraint..
AabKaXb=0 or expressed in momentum..AabPaPb=0 (1) so i think it would by proposing a 2-spin wave equation with constraint (1)..why is that false?.i do not know.
Hab=AabExp(KaXb) being Aab a tensor we would have the constraint..
AabKaXb=0 or expressed in momentum..AabPaPb=0 (1) so i think it would by proposing a 2-spin wave equation with constraint (1)..why is that false?.i do not know.