quasar987
Aug2-08, 12:22 AM
I'm reading a book, and I find a certain passage ambiguous. The book says,
"Let X be a Hilbert space and f:X-->X be weakly sequentially continuous."
Does that mean that x_n-->x (weakly) implies f(x_n)-->f(x) weakly or strongly?
"Let X be a Hilbert space and f:X-->X be weakly sequentially continuous."
Does that mean that x_n-->x (weakly) implies f(x_n)-->f(x) weakly or strongly?