Neitrino
Sep5-08, 04:07 AM
Dear PF I have very simple question….
I don’t understand something in A. Zee’s book Quantum field theory in a nutshell
There in chapter VII 2 in “Determining the hypercharge” second paragraph says that “the invariance of the term psi_bar_left*phi*e_right under SU(2)XU(1) forces the Higgs field phi to have Y=1”
How is that calculated?
Thank you very much
I don’t understand something in A. Zee’s book Quantum field theory in a nutshell
There in chapter VII 2 in “Determining the hypercharge” second paragraph says that “the invariance of the term psi_bar_left*phi*e_right under SU(2)XU(1) forces the Higgs field phi to have Y=1”
How is that calculated?
Thank you very much