John Reid
Feb11-09, 06:11 AM
================================================== ========
===============first sent 2-6-09==did not show up ===============
THIS IS AARON ARCSEC's REPLY TO SUE
================================================== ===========
RESEND (3rd Try) 2-10-2009 (ia e-mail)
================================================== ============
================================================== ============
On Fri, 6 Feb 2009 17:28:33 +0100 (CET),
"Sue..." wrote [in part]:
>Thus, the speed of light must be the same in all inertial frames.
But I do not see how it can happen even in one frame (in the case
of light's one-way speed).
Here is a frame with a pair of x-axis clocks:
Clock 1---------------------------------Clock 2
[?]------------------------------------------[?]
~~>light ray
Can you show how light's one-way speed between the two clocks
can be c experimentally?
On the other hand, look (again) at the following experiment:
Frame A
Clock 1a---------------------------------Clock 2a
[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
~~>light ray
[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
Clock 1b---------------------------------Clock 2b
Frame B
At this point, the origin clocks start on zero when the light ray
leaves them, and the "distant clocks" are _not_ yet started, but
are preset to read the same time (x/c) per Einstein's definition.
After the light ray has left the origin clocks, the distant clocks
will _separate_ spatially before the ray can reach either clock.
(factual basis: light's speed in space is not infinite)
Given this spatial separation of the distant clocks, all observers
in all frames will agree that the ray arrives at the clocks at
different
times. It matters not what times these are quantitatively; all that
matters is that they are absolutely different. (factual basis:
nothing,
not even a light ray, can be in two places at once, so a light ray
cannot possibly "hit" two spatially-separated objects at the same
time, so must and will hit them at absolutely different times)
Frame A
Clock 1a---------------------------------Clock 2a
[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
----------------------------------------------->ray
----------------[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
----------------Clock 1b---------------------------------Clock 2b
----------------Frame B
As seen by all observers in all frames, whenever the ray hits the
distant clock 2a, the other distant clock is _not_ there to be hit.
In other words, as was just stated, the ray reaches the two distant
clocks at absolutely different times.
This invalidates Einstein's definition because this definition
demands that the distant clocks falsely read the _same_ time
whenever they are hit by the ray.
We can label the two different light ray arrival times as follows:
Ta and Tb. The ray traveled the same (relative) distance x in both
frames. The observers in each frame can now calculate the one-way
speed of the light ray:
A-Frame observers;
light's one-way speed = x/Ta
B-Frame observers;
light's one-way speed = x/Tb
Although I _cannot_ see how one-way c-invariance can occur
experimentally, I _can_ see how c-variance can occur.
To repeat my request - will someone please show how Einstein's
one-way c-invariance can occur experimentally?
==A-A==
__________________________________________________ _______________
Windows Live™: E-mail. Chat. Share. Get more ways to connect.
http://windowslive.com/online/hotmail?ocid=TXT_TAGLM_WL_HM_AE_Faster_022009
===============first sent 2-6-09==did not show up ===============
THIS IS AARON ARCSEC's REPLY TO SUE
================================================== ===========
RESEND (3rd Try) 2-10-2009 (ia e-mail)
================================================== ============
================================================== ============
On Fri, 6 Feb 2009 17:28:33 +0100 (CET),
"Sue..." wrote [in part]:
>Thus, the speed of light must be the same in all inertial frames.
But I do not see how it can happen even in one frame (in the case
of light's one-way speed).
Here is a frame with a pair of x-axis clocks:
Clock 1---------------------------------Clock 2
[?]------------------------------------------[?]
~~>light ray
Can you show how light's one-way speed between the two clocks
can be c experimentally?
On the other hand, look (again) at the following experiment:
Frame A
Clock 1a---------------------------------Clock 2a
[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
~~>light ray
[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
Clock 1b---------------------------------Clock 2b
Frame B
At this point, the origin clocks start on zero when the light ray
leaves them, and the "distant clocks" are _not_ yet started, but
are preset to read the same time (x/c) per Einstein's definition.
After the light ray has left the origin clocks, the distant clocks
will _separate_ spatially before the ray can reach either clock.
(factual basis: light's speed in space is not infinite)
Given this spatial separation of the distant clocks, all observers
in all frames will agree that the ray arrives at the clocks at
different
times. It matters not what times these are quantitatively; all that
matters is that they are absolutely different. (factual basis:
nothing,
not even a light ray, can be in two places at once, so a light ray
cannot possibly "hit" two spatially-separated objects at the same
time, so must and will hit them at absolutely different times)
Frame A
Clock 1a---------------------------------Clock 2a
[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
----------------------------------------------->ray
----------------[0]---------------------x--------------------[x/c]
----------------Clock 1b---------------------------------Clock 2b
----------------Frame B
As seen by all observers in all frames, whenever the ray hits the
distant clock 2a, the other distant clock is _not_ there to be hit.
In other words, as was just stated, the ray reaches the two distant
clocks at absolutely different times.
This invalidates Einstein's definition because this definition
demands that the distant clocks falsely read the _same_ time
whenever they are hit by the ray.
We can label the two different light ray arrival times as follows:
Ta and Tb. The ray traveled the same (relative) distance x in both
frames. The observers in each frame can now calculate the one-way
speed of the light ray:
A-Frame observers;
light's one-way speed = x/Ta
B-Frame observers;
light's one-way speed = x/Tb
Although I _cannot_ see how one-way c-invariance can occur
experimentally, I _can_ see how c-variance can occur.
To repeat my request - will someone please show how Einstein's
one-way c-invariance can occur experimentally?
==A-A==
__________________________________________________ _______________
Windows Live™: E-mail. Chat. Share. Get more ways to connect.
http://windowslive.com/online/hotmail?ocid=TXT_TAGLM_WL_HM_AE_Faster_022009