Dell
Apr11-09, 04:29 PM
i need to find the values of p so that the following integral converges
\int(tan(x))pdx (from 0-\pi/2)
the only way i could think of doing this was integration in parts, but i get stuck
\int(tan(x))p =\int(sinp(x)/cosp(x))
u=sinpx
du=-p*sinp-1(x)cos(x)
dv=dx/cosp(x)
but i dont know how to integrate 1/cospdx to find my v
what would be a better way to do this?
\int(tan(x))pdx (from 0-\pi/2)
the only way i could think of doing this was integration in parts, but i get stuck
\int(tan(x))p =\int(sinp(x)/cosp(x))
u=sinpx
du=-p*sinp-1(x)cos(x)
dv=dx/cosp(x)
but i dont know how to integrate 1/cospdx to find my v
what would be a better way to do this?