View Full Version : Orthonormal basis
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Hey guys.
http://img39.imageshack.us/img39/2345/27760913.jpg
I need to show that these wave functions are orthonormal.
I'm a bit confuse, what's i and what's j?
I mean, do I need to take both of the functions, put them in the integral and to show that the result is the Kronecker delta?
Can I neglect the exponent for this?
Thanks a lot.
2. Relevant equations
3. The attempt at a solution
phsopher
May24-09, 05:21 PM
i and j are just arbitrary indices. Yes you have to calculate the integrals for different cases. When i=j the exponential cancels (when you take the complex conjugate it changes sign). When i and j aren't equal you'll get some exponential dependence as well but in that case you should get zero anyway.
i and j are just arbitrary indices. Yes you have to calculate the integrals for different cases. When i=j the exponential cancels (when you take the complex conjugate it changes sign). When i and j aren't equal you'll get some exponential dependence as well but in that case you should get zero anyway.
Well, where are i and j in my problem?
I mean, this is not a series, it's a function.
gabbagabbahey
May24-09, 11:45 PM
Well, where are i and j in my problem?
I mean, this is not a series, it's a function.
You have two wave functions, \psi_1 and \psi_2, so the indices i and j can each take on the values 1 and 2.
You have two wave functions, \psi_1 and \psi_2, so the indices i and j can each take on the values 1 and 2.
Yeah, but I don't have i and j inside the functions so how can I come up with the kronecker delta?
How can I show that if i=j then it's 1 and if i does not equal to j, it's 0 if I don't have i and j?
Thanks.
gabbagabbahey
May24-09, 11:57 PM
Yeah, but I don't have i and j inside the functions so how can I come up with the kronecker delta?
How can I show that if i=j then it's 1 and if i does not equal to j, it's 0 if I don't have i and j?
Thanks.
Showing that
\int \psi_i \psi_j dx =\delta_{ij}
just means that you need to show:
\int \psi_1 \psi_1 dx =\int \psi_2 \psi_2 dx =1
and
\int \psi_1 \psi_2 dx=\int \psi_2 \psi_1 dx =0
Showing that
\int \psi_i \psi_j dx =\delta_{ij}
just means that you need to show:
\int \psi_1 \psi_1 dx =\int \psi_2 \psi_2 dx =1
and
\int \psi_1 \psi_2 dx=\int \psi_2 \psi_1 dx =0
Oh, now I get it.
Thanks a lot.
Well, here is the second part of the question
http://img207.imageshack.us/img207/879/95899388.jpg
I also posted there answer.
I think they have a mistake, I marked it in the red box.
Shouldn't it be A^2=1/2 ?
Am I missing something?
Thanks a lot.
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