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asi123
May24-09, 05:09 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

Hey guys.

http://img39.imageshack.us/img39/2345/27760913.jpg

I need to show that these wave functions are orthonormal.
I'm a bit confuse, what's i and what's j?
I mean, do I need to take both of the functions, put them in the integral and to show that the result is the Kronecker delta?
Can I neglect the exponent for this?

Thanks a lot.


2. Relevant equations



3. The attempt at a solution

phsopher
May24-09, 05:21 PM
i and j are just arbitrary indices. Yes you have to calculate the integrals for different cases. When i=j the exponential cancels (when you take the complex conjugate it changes sign). When i and j aren't equal you'll get some exponential dependence as well but in that case you should get zero anyway.

asi123
May24-09, 11:30 PM
i and j are just arbitrary indices. Yes you have to calculate the integrals for different cases. When i=j the exponential cancels (when you take the complex conjugate it changes sign). When i and j aren't equal you'll get some exponential dependence as well but in that case you should get zero anyway.

Well, where are i and j in my problem?
I mean, this is not a series, it's a function.

gabbagabbahey
May24-09, 11:45 PM
Well, where are i and j in my problem?
I mean, this is not a series, it's a function.

You have two wave functions, \psi_1 and \psi_2, so the indices i and j can each take on the values 1 and 2.

asi123
May24-09, 11:49 PM
You have two wave functions, \psi_1 and \psi_2, so the indices i and j can each take on the values 1 and 2.

Yeah, but I don't have i and j inside the functions so how can I come up with the kronecker delta?

How can I show that if i=j then it's 1 and if i does not equal to j, it's 0 if I don't have i and j?

Thanks.

gabbagabbahey
May24-09, 11:57 PM
Yeah, but I don't have i and j inside the functions so how can I come up with the kronecker delta?

How can I show that if i=j then it's 1 and if i does not equal to j, it's 0 if I don't have i and j?

Thanks.

Showing that

\int \psi_i \psi_j dx =\delta_{ij}

just means that you need to show:

\int \psi_1 \psi_1 dx =\int \psi_2 \psi_2 dx =1

and

\int \psi_1 \psi_2 dx=\int \psi_2 \psi_1 dx =0

asi123
May24-09, 11:59 PM
Showing that

\int \psi_i \psi_j dx =\delta_{ij}

just means that you need to show:

\int \psi_1 \psi_1 dx =\int \psi_2 \psi_2 dx =1

and

\int \psi_1 \psi_2 dx=\int \psi_2 \psi_1 dx =0

Oh, now I get it.

Thanks a lot.

asi123
May25-09, 07:40 AM
Well, here is the second part of the question

http://img207.imageshack.us/img207/879/95899388.jpg

I also posted there answer.
I think they have a mistake, I marked it in the red box.
Shouldn't it be A^2=1/2 ?
Am I missing something?

Thanks a lot.