It's commonly known that if f(z) is analytic, then
f(z*) = f*(z)
that is, an analytic function of the complex conjugate is equal to the complex conjugate of the function...with the proviso that f(x+i0) = f(x) = Re f(x)
I've tried to prove it using the C-R equations but I'm not having much luck. Can anyone point me in the right direction?
Thanks.
Hurkyl
Jun18-09, 01:36 PM
If a function is analytic, then near each point in its domain, it's equal to its Taylor series (which has a positive radius of convergence)
g_edgar
Jun25-09, 10:40 AM
This is known as the Reflection Principle in textbooks.
The two functions f(x) and g(x) := \overline{f(\overline{x})} are both analytic and they agree on the real line, which is a set with a limit point, therefore they agree everywhere.
BackEMF
Jul5-09, 12:46 PM
Excellent.
Should have spotted the method where you write it as a Taylor series (necessarily with real coefficients, I guess, since the function's restriction to the real line must be real, as stated above) then apply complex conjugation to this series - then it just boils down to showing that the complex conjugate of a complex variable raised to a power is the power of the complex congugate of the variable. In other words
(z^n)^{*} = (z^{*})^n
which isn't too hard, I hope!
The Identity Theorem method is a bit more sublte, but it makes sense.
Thanks Hurkyl, g_edgar.
nrqed
Jul5-09, 01:53 PM
Excellent.
Should have spotted the method where you write it as a Taylor series (necessarily with real coefficients, I guess, since the function's restriction to the real line must be real, as stated above) then apply complex conjugation to this series - then it just boils down to showing that the complex conjugate of a complex variable raised to a power is the power of the complex congugate of the variable. In other words
(z^n)^{*} = (z^{*})^n
which isn't too hard, I hope!
Note that this is actually trivial if you use the polar form.
BackEMF
Jul5-09, 02:07 PM
Note that this is actually trivial if you use the polar form.