Andrew Magyar
Oct21-09, 12:54 PM
Is any one aware of the verity of the following inequality
[F(1/2, (p-1)/2; (p+2)/2; x)^2] <= F(1, (p-1)/2; (p+2)/2; x)
where F(a, b; c; x) is the Gauss Hypergeometric function and p is any integer greater than 1.
If so could you please direct me where I can find it and its proof.
Regards,
Andy
[F(1/2, (p-1)/2; (p+2)/2; x)^2] <= F(1, (p-1)/2; (p+2)/2; x)
where F(a, b; c; x) is the Gauss Hypergeometric function and p is any integer greater than 1.
If so could you please direct me where I can find it and its proof.
Regards,
Andy