bhh1988
Oct26-09, 08:52 PM
just out of curiosity - it seems evident to me that the capacitance of a conductive body should be between the capacitance of an inscribed sphere and the capacitance of a circumscribed sphere. But I can't figure out how to prove this.
If you prove this, it follows that the energy required to assemble a charge distribution of some conductor is between the energy required to assemble a circumscribed sphere of the same potential and an inscribed sphere of the same potential (or of the same total amount of charge).
If you prove this, it follows that the energy required to assemble a charge distribution of some conductor is between the energy required to assemble a circumscribed sphere of the same potential and an inscribed sphere of the same potential (or of the same total amount of charge).