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johnsmi
Jul15-10, 06:11 AM
Hi, I am reading this article for homework about a ring in a megnetic field. It starts off by giving a hamiltonian (an adiabatic part -never mind)

H_{0}= \frac{1}{2M} [ \Pi -A]^{2} -\mu B( \phi) \cdot \sigma


A- is a known operator

where \Pi=\frac{1}{2a} \frac{d}{d \phi} -\frac{eB_{z} \pi a}{2c} is the generalized momentum operator

I know that the eigen states of \mu B( \phi) \cdot \sigma (Spinors) are:

| \uparrow ( \phi) > =(i \alpha e^{-i \phi} , -\beta)^{T}



| \downarrow ( \phi) > =(i\beta e^{-i \phi} , \alpha)^{T}


Now, in this article I have he sais that the eigen states of H0 can be written as

| \uparrow ( \phi) > \otimes \psi ^{ \uparrow}_{n} and


| \downarrow ( \phi) > \otimes \psi ^{ \downarrow}_{n}


When, \psi \^{ \uparrow}_{n} for example is the eigenstate of a Hamiltonian:

H^{up}_{0}= \frac{1}{2M} [ \Pi -const]^{2} -\mu B


How did he get it (the last Hamiltonian)???
Someone told me to try and apply H0 on

| \uparrow ( \phi) > \otimes \psi ^{ \uparrow}_{n}
but I got something pretty awful
Can somone help me please???