Probability of Throwing at least 1 "6" vs Double 6 in Dice Rolls

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SUMMARY

The probability of rolling at least one "6" in four throws of a single die is 51.7%, calculated using the complement method or the binomial formula. In contrast, the probability of rolling at least one double "6" in 24 throws of two dice is approximately 49.1%, derived from the complement of no double throws. The calculations utilize binomial coefficients and the principles of probability to establish these outcomes definitively. The discussion highlights the effectiveness of both methods in determining probabilities in dice rolls.

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TASK: Show that throwing at least one "6" within 4 throws of a die is more likely than throwing a "double 6" within 24 throws of two dice.

SOLUTION: I can do the first result two ways. Firstly, I can use the complement of "four dice all showing something other than six" which would be 1 - ((5/6)^4) = 51,7%. Or I can use the long-winded version of

Binomial[4, 1]*((5/6)^3)*((1/6))^1) +
Binomial[4, 2]*((5/6)^2)*((1/6))^2) +
Binomial[4, 3]*((5/6)^1)*((1/6))^3) +
Binomial[4, 4]*((5/6)^0)*((1/6))^4)

= 51,7%

which translated into words is roughly: "the chances of selecting 1 from 4 multiplied by the chances of three dice showing not six multiplied by the chances of one die showing six PLUS the chances of selecting two from 4 etc etc"

I can show the second part by using the complement of "no six or exactly one six" which is 1 - ((5/6)^12) - (Binomial[12,1])*(5/6)^11)*(1/6)

MY QUESTION: if I were insane enough (which I am, believe me :eek: ) to want to solve the second part using the "long-winded" binomial version, how would I do it?

I'm gratefu for any help
 
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P(getting a double 6) = 1/36
P(in 24 throws , no double throws) = (35/36)^24
P(getting atleast 1 double throw in 24 throws)
= 1-(35/36)^24
approx .491 or 49.1%

Hence the result

-- AI
 

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