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FancyNut
Oct25-04, 12:25 AM
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v345/chronoga/ff336e76.jpg


^^ So according to that graph, force (and so acceleration) increase from t =0 to t=4 then force drops to zero and there's probably a constant deacceleration for two seconds....

How do I get the velocity at t = 6?

acceleration is changing as forces changes (increases) so I can't pin it down and Im guessing in order to get velocity at t = 6 I'll need velocity at t = 4 and acceleration between t = 4 and t= 6...


Any hints/ideas? Thanks for any help. :smile:

Tide
Oct25-04, 01:00 AM
HINT: If force is proportional to the derivative of the speed then the speed should be proportional to the integral of the force! :-)

FancyNut
Oct25-04, 01:39 AM
I alternated between staring at that hint and the graph for 15 minutes...


:redface:

Spectre5
Oct25-04, 02:42 AM
the velocity is the integral of acceleration....acceleration and force are proportional as you know....now you know what an integral represents, right...?

FancyNut
Oct25-04, 10:50 AM
... so velocity is the area under the force? 1/2*b*h = 1/2*4*10 = 20 for initial velocity at t = 4?

FancyNut
Oct25-04, 11:58 AM
hah never mind I got it! the hight of the triangle should've been in acceleration values and not force.. so I divided ten by the mass and THEN calculated the area and that's the initial velocity which is equal to the final one at t = 6 because acceleration is 0 from t =4 to t=6.

Thanks! :biggrin:

Spectre5
Oct25-04, 01:56 PM
very good! :)