Lie
Oct7-11, 09:22 AM
Hello!
Could someone help me in the following implication:
X and Y polish spaces and f: X --> Y a function.
If f^{-1}(U) is analytic for all U open in Y, then f^{-1}(U) is coanalytic for all U open in Y.
Grateful. :)
Could someone help me in the following implication:
X and Y polish spaces and f: X --> Y a function.
If f^{-1}(U) is analytic for all U open in Y, then f^{-1}(U) is coanalytic for all U open in Y.
Grateful. :)