tamintl
Oct26-11, 03:09 PM
hello all,
I'm having slight bother with the following idea.
I want to use exp(x) exp(−x) = 1 to show that for all x < 1 we have:
exp(x) ≤ 1 / (1 − x)
Attempt at solution / Relevant info:
We know that exp(x) > 0 for all x ∈ R with definition of exp(x) = lim (n→∞) (1 + x/n)ⁿ
Could some kind soul please shed some light on a tired young man.
Regards as always
tam
I'm having slight bother with the following idea.
I want to use exp(x) exp(−x) = 1 to show that for all x < 1 we have:
exp(x) ≤ 1 / (1 − x)
Attempt at solution / Relevant info:
We know that exp(x) > 0 for all x ∈ R with definition of exp(x) = lim (n→∞) (1 + x/n)ⁿ
Could some kind soul please shed some light on a tired young man.
Regards as always
tam