Direct comparison test for convergence

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the convergence of the series \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!}\) through direct comparison with other series. Participants are exploring methods to establish whether the original series converges or diverges.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the ratio test and suggest comparisons to other series, such as \(\sum \frac{1}{2^n}\) and \(\sum \frac{1}{n^2}\), to analyze convergence. Questions arise regarding the appropriateness of these comparisons and the implications of the results.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various approaches being proposed for comparison. Some participants have suggested specific series to compare against, while others are questioning the effectiveness of these comparisons. There is no explicit consensus yet on the best method to use.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the challenge of selecting appropriate series for comparison, and there is an acknowledgment of differing levels of comfort with the topic of sequences and series.

RadiationX
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I'm supposed to compare the series

[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!}[/tex]

to some other series to see if the one above converges or diverges. I have no idea of what to compare it to.

I know by the ratio test that the above series converges, that is if I'm doing the ratio test correctly.

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{1}{(n+1)!}n!\\=\frac{1}{n(n+1)}(1*n)=\\\frac{1}{(n+1)}[/tex]

since this limit is zero which is less than one the series converges
 
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I'm thinking about majoring in mathematics. How important are sequences and series to a math major? I hate them BTW.
 
Compare it to the sum of 1/2^n. If you can show this converges, and show that every term in this series is greater than the corresponding term in the original series, that one must also converge.
 
Or even, and simpler, just compare it to [tex]\frac{1}{n^2}[/tex]. As soon as n> 2,
[tex]\frac{1}{n^n}< \frac{1}{n^2}[/tex]. Now, what do you know about the convergence of [tex]\Sigma_1^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}[/tex]?
 

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