Do Rubber Bands Truly Follow the Modified Hooke's Law Formula?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the applicability of a modified formula for rubber bands that resembles Hooke's Law, specifically examining the expression F=-kT(x-\frac{1}{x^2}) where x=\frac{L}{L_0}. Participants are exploring the theoretical underpinnings and reliability of this formula in relation to the behavior of rubber bands under stress.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a modified force law for rubber bands and questions its reliability.
  • Another participant challenges the definition of x, suggesting it may be \delta L/L_0 instead of L/L_0.
  • A participant elaborates on Hooke's Law and its relation to elasticity, introducing concepts like Young's modulus and stress.
  • There is a suggestion that the modified formula indicates hardening behavior for compression of rubber, though its validity is questioned.
  • A participant provides a source for the formula and discusses its implications regarding uniaxial hardening.
  • Concerns are raised about whether the formula is a legitimate theoretical correction or merely a fabricated adjustment.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty regarding the correct formulation of x and the theoretical merit of the proposed modified formula. There is no consensus on the reliability or applicability of the formula.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential limitations in the assumptions underlying the modified formula and its dependence on definitions related to elasticity and deformation.

Manchot
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I have found a website which claims that rubber bands obey a force law
[tex]F=-kT(x-\frac{1}{x^2})[/tex]
[tex]x=\frac{L}{L_0}[/tex]
While this is similar to Hooke's Law in the sense that it *almost* approaches it for large values of x, it is also quite different. Can anyone confirm or deny the formula's reliability? Thanks.
 
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Are you sure [itex]x = L/L_0~~and~not~~\delta L/L_0~[/itex] ?
 
No, I'm not sure.
 
Well if you're familiar with elasticity you can formulate Hooke's Law in its terms,

Stress = Modulus of Elasticity x Relative Deformation

For a longitudinal deformation, the modulus is called Young's modulus

[tex]\sigma = Y \delta L[/tex]

Since Stress = Force/Area

[tex]\frac{F}{A} = Y \delta L[/tex]

[tex]F = YA \delta L[/tex]

You know

[tex]\delta L = \frac{\Delta L}{L_{o}}[/tex]

[tex]F = YA \frac{\Delta L}{L_{o}}[/tex]

Rearranging

[tex]F = \frac{YA}{L_{o}} \Delta L[/tex]

we have

[tex]F = \frac{YA}{L_{o}} \Delta L[/tex]

Hooke's Law

[tex]F = k \Delta x[/tex]

where k in our equation is (x = L)

[tex]k = \frac{YA}{L_{o}}[/tex]

The people from that page probably tried something similar, can you give us the website?
 
Last edited:
The given formula, in order to be meaningful must have [tex]x=\frac{L}{L_{0}}[/tex]

Rewritten slightly, it simply says:
[tex]F=-kT\delta{L}({1+\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}})[/tex]

Hence, it predicts a hardening for compression of the rubber.
I don't know if it actually is good, though..
 
The given formula, in order to be meaningful must have x=L/L0 ...

Which is what they give under the link. So it looks like a simple uniaxial time-independent hardening mod of sorts ... so is it just a simple made up correction or does it have any theoretical merit ?
 

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