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LeonhardEuler
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#2
Jan8-07, 06:58 PM
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I'm not trying to be difficult, but aren't the standard proofs pretty inuitive? Especially for the perfect squares. To every element of the set of perfect squares you can correspond exactly on element of the set of naturals: its square root. The same goes for the other way around. So you have a one to one correspondance between the squares and naturals, so they have the same cardinality. The proof is nearly identical for the rationals, except that the bijection is somewhat more complicated