View Single Post
jonnylane
#1
May22-03, 08:58 AM
P: n/a
I'm doing some past papers for my QM finals and I've come across a question that is a bit strange. I'm not sure if it's as easy as it sounds.

X and P are one dimensional position and momentum operators, which take the explicit forms of x and -ihd/dx.

i) write down the explicit forms of X^2 and P^2

now then, is this just x^2 and hd^2/dx^2?

im ok on the next few bits, but:

iv) which, if any, of the two functions exp(ikx) and exp(-ax^2) are eigenfunctions of P^2?

my guess is that, since the eigenfunction of P is exp(ikx), its the other one (and the i has disapeared in the squaring process), but how can i prove this?


Im probably just being paranoid, but can someone verify these answers?

thanks
Phys.Org News Partner Science news on Phys.org
Scientists develop 'electronic nose' for rapid detection of C. diff infection
Why plants in the office make us more productive
Tesla Motors dealing as states play factory poker