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May22-03, 08:58 AM
P: n/a
I'm doing some past papers for my QM finals and I've come across a question that is a bit strange. I'm not sure if it's as easy as it sounds.

X and P are one dimensional position and momentum operators, which take the explicit forms of x and -ihd/dx.

i) write down the explicit forms of X^2 and P^2

now then, is this just x^2 and hd^2/dx^2?

im ok on the next few bits, but:

iv) which, if any, of the two functions exp(ikx) and exp(-ax^2) are eigenfunctions of P^2?

my guess is that, since the eigenfunction of P is exp(ikx), its the other one (and the i has disapeared in the squaring process), but how can i prove this?

Im probably just being paranoid, but can someone verify these answers?

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