Your answer was simply superb. I am most grateful. Your theory at the end sounds plausible though I am in no position to really critique it (yet). As I'm still educating myself to this area, and as clearly you have a good deal of expertise, I would like to ask you a few more questions to shore up my understanding:
1. So the gyromagnetic ratio is really just the charge to mass ratio. Strictly speaking then, it only "really" exists for the proton and electron but not the neutron. Is this correct?
2. The g-factor relates the particles magnetic moment to the gyromagnetic ratio. It is always defined as 2*(1+anomaly).
a. The (2) factor is a correction to a classical expression, which didn't take into account the particle's orbital angular momentum. Is this correct?
b. The (1+anomaly) factor is purely a quantum mechanical correction. I have no clue where it comes from or even why the "1" is a "0" for the neutron. I suppose this is the trick that allows the neutron to be assigned a gyromagnetic ratio even though it has no (net) charge. Any basic guidance here would be appreciated.
c. Where does the "anomaly" expression come from in standard explanations?
Overall, your theory is probably the simplest answer I've ever seen given, but of course it could also be incorrect. Is there a short version of the "standard" answer to this that you've found? Perhaps also why you were motivated to go and find your own? Finally, I'll say this: it appears to me we're thinking along the same lines, i.e. magnetism is the fundamental property.