- #1
maethros
- 8
- 0
Hi!
I read that in an 1D potential, the solution for the Schrödinger equation is always either symmetric or antisymmetric if the potential is a symmetric function: V(x) = V(-x).
How can I proof this?
Thanks, for ur answers!
I read that in an 1D potential, the solution for the Schrödinger equation is always either symmetric or antisymmetric if the potential is a symmetric function: V(x) = V(-x).
How can I proof this?
Thanks, for ur answers!