Is This Spacetime Geometry Mathematically Conceivable?

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  • Thread starter Thread starter Eugene Shubert
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    Geometry Spacetime
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical conception of a non-Riemannian geometry and its implications for a specific metric form related to spacetime. Participants explore the algebraic manipulation of the proposed metric and its physical interpretation, delving into both theoretical and mathematical aspects.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question whether the proposed metric can be simplified or inverted, with one suggesting that multiplying through could eliminate fractions.
  • Others assert that the original expression is not equivalent to a simpler form, emphasizing the importance of careful algebraic manipulation.
  • A participant proposes a physical interpretation of the metric, suggesting that it represents a differential increment of proper time and introduces the concept of superluminal velocity.
  • There is a discussion about the implications of flipping fractions and how it affects the exponent, indicating confusion over algebraic rules.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the algebraic manipulation of the metric and its implications. There is no consensus on whether the proposed metric can be simplified or what its physical meaning entails.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include potential misunderstandings of algebraic manipulation and the dependence on definitions of terms like "proper time" and "superluminal velocity." The discussion does not resolve these mathematical uncertainties.

Eugene Shubert
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Is it possible to invent a non-Riemannian geometry to justify the existence of a "metric" of the form:

1/ds^2 = 1/dt^2 – 1/(dx^2 + dy^2 + dz^2)

Eugene Shubert
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isn't that just
ds2 = dt2- (dx2+dy2+dz2)
?
 
Umm, I would agree with schwarzchildradius here. Just multiply through and suddenly you get rid of the nasty fractions.
 
Yes I do remember elementary algebra, good for me. you can invert that equation.
 
Would you like to expain in more detail how you think you can invert that fraction to get the required result?
 
I thought flipping a fraction such as 1/3^2 would result in 3^-2.

Doesn't it change the exponent?
 
C'mon guys...

1/ds2 = 1/dt2 – 1/(dx2 + dy2 + dz2)
1/ds2 = (dx2 + dy2 + dz2 - dt2)/[ (dx2 + dy2 + dz2)(dt2) ]

ds2 = [ (dx2 + dy2 + dz2)(dt2) ]/(dx2 + dy2 + dz2 - dt2)

Which just doesn't look any cleaner.

edit: changed to using integrated superscript.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Originally posted by suffian
C'mon guys...

1/ds2 = 1/dt2 – 1/(dx2 + dy2 + dz2)
1/ds2 = (dx2 + dy2 + dz2 - dt2)/[ (dx2 + dy2 + dz2)(dt2) ]

ds2 = [ (dx2 + dy2 + dz2)(dt2) ]/(dx2 + dy2 + dz2 - dt2)

Which just doesn't look any cleaner.

edit: changed to using integrated superscript.

That was my point.
 
  • #10
Let me suggest the physical meaning to the expression above.

I’m thinking of ds as an invariant that represents a differential increment of proper time. That would imply that the total amount of elapsed proper time t' would equal t/sqrt (1-1/V^2) where V^2 = (dx/dt)^2 + (dy/dt)^2 + (dz/dt)^2. I would interpret V^2 > 1 to be a superluminal velocity.
 

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