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Is it possible... |
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| Jan11-11, 02:31 PM | #1 |
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Is it possible...
Is it possible for f(x) to be equal to f '(x)? I've been trying all day to make it work and have gotten nothing.
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| Jan11-11, 02:39 PM | #2 |
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| Jan11-11, 02:41 PM | #3 |
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Oh, didn't think about that. XD I kept trying Trig to make it work....
Are there any other ways? |
| Jan11-11, 02:52 PM | #4 |
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Recognitions:
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Is it possible...f'(x)=f(x) You'd see that any multiply of ex would satisfy the condition. I think that is the only function, that I know of anyhow. |
| Jan11-11, 05:11 PM | #5 |
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Indeed, every function of the form [tex]f(x)=Ce^x[/tex], with [tex]C\in \mathbb{R}[/tex] will do. There are no other functions that equal it's own derivative...
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