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Is it possible...by Axecutioner
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#1
Jan1111, 02:31 PM

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Is it possible for f(x) to be equal to f '(x)? I've been trying all day to make it work and have gotten nothing.
Thanks 


#2
Jan1111, 02:39 PM

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#3
Jan1111, 02:41 PM

P: 32

Oh, didn't think about that. XD I kept trying Trig to make it work....
Are there any other ways? 


#4
Jan1111, 02:52 PM

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Is it possible...
f'(x)=f(x) You'd see that any multiply of e^{x} would satisfy the condition. I think that is the only function, that I know of anyhow. 


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