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A Conceptual Question on de Rham cohomology. |
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| Jan1-12, 07:09 PM | #1 |
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A Conceptual Question on de Rham cohomology.
Hi everybody,
Currently, I am studying cohomology on my own. I have a question: Why H rD(M) = 0, when r > n n is the dimension of manifold M My book says it is obvious, but to me it is not obvious. I wish someone could explain this question to me. |
| Jan1-12, 07:12 PM | #2 |
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Well, how is the group defined?
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| Jan1-12, 07:22 PM | #3 |
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HrD (M) = Ker(dr)/Im(dr-1) |
| Jan1-12, 07:51 PM | #4 |
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A Conceptual Question on de Rham cohomology. |
| Jan2-12, 10:53 PM | #5 |
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Recognitions:
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it follows from properties of the wedge product, as is being suggested.
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| Jan12-12, 03:05 PM | #6 |
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Recognitions:
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How do you define n-cocycles and n-coboundaries?
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| Jan12-12, 06:30 PM | #7 |
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there aren't even any ≠0 cochains in dimensions above the dimension of the manifold.
the reason is essentially that an nbyn determinant is always zero if the matrix has rank < n. |
| Jan12-12, 10:36 PM | #8 |
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Yes, that was the point I was trying to make. Look up the definition of n-cocycles and n-coboundaries to see what the cohomology groups are . Or, if you have the right conditions for Poincare Duality, see why you cannot have (n+k)-cycles; k>0, in an n-manifold.
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