
#1
Feb612, 04:24 PM

P: 209

Hello Everyone,
I am wondering what the Hankel Transform of δ(k)/k is. ie: [itex]\int^{\infty}_{0}k\frac{\delta(k)}{k}J_{0}[k r] dk[/itex] = [itex]\int^{\infty}_{0}\delta(k) J_{0}[k r] dk[/itex] is. If the integral was from [itex]\infty to \infty[/itex], I know that it would be 1, and hence the hankel transform of 1 is δ(k)/k. But since the limits are from 0 to [itex]\infty[/itex], does the same result hold? The other two possibilities I see are 1/2 and 0. Thanks for your help. 


Register to reply 
Related Discussions  
Does the dirac delta function have a Laplace transform?  Calculus  1  
laplace transform  Dirac delta  Calculus & Beyond Homework  1  
Fourier Transform and Dirac Delta Function  Calculus & Beyond Homework  0  
Fourier transform formulation of the dirac delta  Quantum Physics  1  
laplace transform of dirac delta function  General Math  1 