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Godel's theorem, Hawking and GUT 
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#1
Mar512, 09:55 PM

P: 149

Hi all,
Stephen Hawking extended the Godel's Theorem to physics and hence expressed that single TOE does not exist. So, does that mean that single GUT cannot exist as well? I guess not, in a sense that GUT might not necessarily mean TOE. I just want opinions. Sincerely DPA 


#2
Mar512, 11:54 PM

Sci Advisor
P: 5,464

strange;
I would say that a ToE can exist, but that we are not able to construct a proof 


#4
Mar612, 03:38 AM

P: 362

Godel's theorem, Hawking and GUT



#5
Mar612, 04:09 AM

Sci Advisor
P: 4,630




#6
Mar612, 06:01 AM

P: 362




#7
Mar612, 07:26 AM

P: 149

check this. I might have got it wrong. Help me.
damtp.cam.ac.uk/events/strings02/dirac/hawking/ 


#8
Mar612, 07:43 AM

P: 982

Obviously, the goal of physics is not to find every mathematical statement that's true. So Godel's incompleteness theorem does not apply. 


#9
Mar612, 09:03 AM

Sci Advisor
P: 4,630

Namely, he does not EXTEND the Godel's theorem, but merely uses it as an analogy illustrating the (certainly not new) idea that the final physical theory of everything might not exist. 


#10
Mar612, 09:14 AM

P: 149

ah sorry
my word was misleading. 


#11
Mar612, 10:44 PM

P: 3,243

What does a theory of everything even mean?
I recall reading that Lord Kelvin said at the start of the 1900's that the field of physics is done, i.e nearly completed to describe every natural phenomena. He didn't account for the two revolutions that followed, QM and GR. 


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