
#1
May1112, 12:08 PM

P: 7

First post!
Is it true that for a complex function f([itex]{z}[/itex],[itex]\overline{z}[/itex]) [itex]\overline{\frac{∂f}{∂z}}[/itex] =[itex]\frac{∂\overline{f}}{∂\overline{z}}[/itex] I think I proved this while trying to solve a problem. If it turns out it's not true and I've made a mistake, I'll upload my 'proof' and have the mistakes pointed out :) Thanks 



#2
May1112, 01:32 PM

Sci Advisor
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Thanks
P: 26,167

hi stallm!welcome to pf!
but if f(z,z*) = z* then ∂f/∂z = 0 



#3
May1112, 01:52 PM

P: 7





#4
May1112, 02:00 PM

Sci Advisor
HW Helper
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P: 26,167

Complex conjugate of a derivative wrt z
ah, i misread it
in that case, yes … 



#5
May1112, 02:08 PM

P: 7

Thank you!




#6
May1212, 07:54 AM

P: 1,666




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