
#1
Nov705, 06:09 AM

P: 501

let be the Bernoulli formula for calculating an integral in the form:
[tex]\int{f(x)dx}=C+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(1)^{n}x^{n}\frac{d^{n}f}{dx^{n}}\frac{1}{\Gamma(n)} [/tex] my question is..could we calculate the integral from this series?..thanks. 



#2
Nov705, 06:39 AM

Sci Advisor
HW Helper
P: 11,863

It's actually a series for the antiderivative. I don't see why not...
Daniel. P.S. It's kinda mysterious that this formula involves Euler's gamma function and not Bernoulli's numbers. 


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