How Does Time Affect Particle Probability in an Infinite Potential Box?

In summary, the conversation discusses the equation for a particle in an "infinite potential box" with the width L. The particle can only be found within the box and the potential outside is infinite. The energy states for the particle are E_{1} and E_{3}, and it must be found in one of those states. The question is how the probability of finding the particle changes over time. The approach is to use the equation for probability, |\phi(x,t)|^2, which involves complex expressions. To make the calculation easier, the suggestion is to split the equation into real and imaginary components and factor out the exponential term. However, the resulting expressions are still complex and may be difficult to analyze.
  • #1
iAlexN
16
0
An "infinite potential box"

This equation describes a particle in an "infinite potential box" with the width L, i.e.:

Note that I do not know if it would be called an infinite potential box in English, but basically the particle can only be found within this space; outside of this the potential is [itex]\infty[/itex]

<x|n> = [itex]\Psi_{n}[/itex](x)=[itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex]sin([itex]\frac{n*pi*x}{L}[/itex])
0<x<L

I have the following energy states for the particle, E[itex]_{1}[/itex] and E[itex]_{3}[/itex],

[itex]\varphi[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex](|1>+|3>)

Which means that it must be found in either E[itex]_{1}[/itex] and E[itex]_{3}[/itex]

The question is:

How will the probability of finding the particle change depending on time?

I am not entirely sure how to solve this problem. I start like this:

[itex]\Psi_{1}[/itex](x,t)=e[itex]^{-i*E_{1}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*[itex]\Psi_{1}[/itex](x,0) =[itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex]sin([itex]\frac{1*pi*x}{L}[/itex])*e[itex]^{-i*E_{1}*t/\hbar}[/itex]

[itex]\Psi_{3}[/itex](x,t)=e[itex]^{-i*E_{3}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*[itex]\Psi_{3}[/itex](x,0) =[itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex]sin([itex]\frac{3*pi*x}{L}[/itex])*e[itex]^{-i*E_{3}*t/\hbar}[/itex]

Inserting this into: [itex]\varphi[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex](|1>+|3>)

Gives (simplified):

[itex]\varphi[/itex](x,t)=[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex](e[itex]^{-i*E_{1}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*sin([itex]\frac{1*pi*x}{L}[/itex])+e[itex]^{-i*E_{3}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*sin([itex]\frac{3*pi*x}{L}[/itex]))

|[itex]\varphi[/itex](x,t)|[itex]^{2}[/itex]: I think this would give me how the probability changes over time, but I am not sure mathematically how this should be expressed or determined, because [itex]\varphi[/itex](x,t) is a big expression; assuming this is the right way to solve this problem.

Thank you in advance!

Oh, and since this is my first post on this forum I am not sure if this would qualify to be placed in "Advanced Physics", so feel free to move it to another category.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2


iAlexN said:
This equation describes a particle in an "infinite potential box" with the width L, i.e.:

Note that I do not know if it would be called an infinite potential box in English, but basically the particle can only be found within this space; outside of this the potential is [itex]\infty[/itex]

<x|n> = [itex]\Psi_{n}[/itex](x)=[itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex]sin([itex]\frac{n*pi*x}{L}[/itex])
0<x<L

I have the following energy states for the particle, E[itex]_{1}[/itex] and E[itex]_{3}[/itex],

[itex]\varphi[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex](|1>+|3>)

Which means that it must be found in either E[itex]_{1}[/itex] and E[itex]_{3}[/itex]

The question is:

How will the probability of finding the particle change depending on time?

I am not entirely sure how to solve this problem. I start like this:

[itex]\Psi_{1}[/itex](x,t)=e[itex]^{-i*E_{1}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*[itex]\Psi_{1}[/itex](x,0) =[itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex]sin([itex]\frac{1*pi*x}{L}[/itex])*e[itex]^{-i*E_{1}*t/\hbar}[/itex]

[itex]\Psi_{3}[/itex](x,t)=e[itex]^{-i*E_{3}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*[itex]\Psi_{3}[/itex](x,0) =[itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex]sin([itex]\frac{3*pi*x}{L}[/itex])*e[itex]^{-i*E_{3}*t/\hbar}[/itex]

Inserting this into: [itex]\varphi[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex](|1>+|3>)

Gives (simplified):

[itex]\varphi[/itex](x,t)=[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}[/itex][itex]\ast[/itex](e[itex]^{-i*E_{1}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*sin([itex]\frac{1*pi*x}{L}[/itex])+e[itex]^{-i*E_{3}*t/\hbar}[/itex]*sin([itex]\frac{3*pi*x}{L}[/itex]))

|[itex]\varphi[/itex](x,t)|[itex]^{2}[/itex]: I think this would give me how the probability changes over time, but I am not sure mathematically how this should be expressed or determined, because [itex]\varphi[/itex](x,t) is a big expression; assuming this is the right way to solve this problem.

Thank you in advance!

Oh, and since this is my first post on this forum I am not sure if this would qualify to be placed in "Advanced Physics", so feel free to move it to another category.

It looks like you have the right approach. ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## is indeed the probability; I'm afraid there's no way around calculating that. You can do some things to make the calculation a bit easier, though.

One is to split ##\phi(x,t)## up into real and imaginary components, as ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## is then just ##(\mbox{Re}\phi(x,t))^2 + (\mbox{Im}\phi(x,t))^2##.

You can also make things a bit easier by factor out the factor of ##\exp(-iE_1t/\hbar)##, as you can shift ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## by any overall phase factor. You can then do what I suggested above. This may simplify your final expression slightly simpler.
 
  • #3


Mute said:
It looks like you have the right approach. ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## is indeed the probability; I'm afraid there's no way around calculating that. You can do some things to make the calculation a bit easier, though.

One is to split ##\phi(x,t)## up into real and imaginary components, as ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## is then just ##(\mbox{Re}\phi(x,t))^2 + (\mbox{Im}\phi(x,t))^2##.

You can also make things a bit easier by factor out the factor of ##\exp(-iE_1t/\hbar)##, as you can shift ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## by any overall phase factor. You can then do what I suggested above. This may simplify your final expression slightly simpler.

When I factor out e[itex]^{E_{1}t/\hbar}[/itex]:

[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}e^{-iE_{1}t/\hbar}[/itex](sin([itex]\frac{pix}{L}[/itex])+e[itex]^{-i(E_{3}-E_{1}t)/\hbar}[/itex]*sin([itex]\frac{3pix}{L}[/itex]))

However I am not sure how this will make it easier, because the e[itex]^{-i(E_{3}-E_{1})t/\hbar}[/itex] factor is still there.

I also tried to separate them to Real and Imaginary parts but that resulted in long and cumbersome expression of cos and sin functions. Some thing like this:
[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}[/itex]*[(Cos(E[itex]_{1}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{pix}{L}[/itex])+Cos(E[itex]_{3}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{3pix}{L}[/itex])+i(-sin(E[itex]_{1}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{pix}{L}[/itex])-sin((E[itex]_{3}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{3pix}{L}[/itex])]

The reason that I don't want a long expression once [itex]|\phi(x,t)|[/itex] has been squared is because I need to draw how [itex]|\phi(x,t)|^2[/itex] will change shape depending on time, or describe it with words. I think, however, that the separation to real and imaginary parts will make it easier, but it is difficult to analyze the expression for different values for t, other than 0.

Any further advice how you could analyze how it will fluctuate depending on time?
 
  • #4


iAlexN said:
When I factor out e[itex]^{E_{1}t/\hbar}[/itex]:

[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}e^{-iE_{1}t/\hbar}[/itex](sin([itex]\frac{pix}{L}[/itex])+e[itex]^{-i(E_{3}-E_{1}t)/\hbar}[/itex]*sin([itex]\frac{3pix}{L}[/itex]))

However I am not sure how this will make it easier, because the e[itex]^{-i(E_{3}-E_{1})t/\hbar}[/itex] factor is still there.

The problem is fundamentally time dependent; you cannot entirely get rid of the exponentials, but this change does mean that when you calculate ##|\phi(x,t)|^2## you will get factors of ##\cos((E_3-E_1)t/\hbar)## and ##\sin((E_3-E_1)t/\hbar)## in your expression rather than sums or differences of ##\cos(E_3t/\hbar)## and ##\cos(E_1t/\hbar)##, etc.

I also tried to separate them to Real and Imaginary parts but that resulted in long and cumbersome expression of cos and sin functions. Some thing like this:
[itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}[/itex]*[(Cos(E[itex]_{1}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{pix}{L}[/itex])+Cos(E[itex]_{3}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{3pix}{L}[/itex])+i(-sin(E[itex]_{1}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{pix}{L}[/itex])-sin((E[itex]_{3}[/itex]t/[itex]\hbar[/itex])*sin([itex]\frac{3pix}{L}[/itex])]

Yes, as you can see, you have gotten something ugly because you didn't remove the exponential phase factor that I suggested. Also, if you're using LaTeX to type the hbar's, you should use it for the entire equation - it's easier to read that way.

The reason that I don't want a long expression once [itex]|\phi(x,t)|[/itex] has been squared is because I need to draw how [itex]|\phi(x,t)|^2[/itex] will change shape depending on time, or describe it with words. I think, however, that the separation to real and imaginary parts will make it easier, but it is difficult to analyze the expression for different values for t, other than 0.

Once you've calculated the cleaned up version it will be easier to draw, because there will be several relatively nice values of t that you can plot.
 
  • #5


When I have expressions that look messy, I often try using simpler notation. You can write the product that you need to expand as

##(Ae^{ia}+Be^{ib})(Ae^{-ia}+Be^{-ib})##.

Try expanding using this notation. You will get 4 terms that are not complicated.

Two of the terms can be combined using ##e^{i\theta}+e^{-i\theta} = 2cos\theta##
 
Last edited:

What is an infinite potential box?

An infinite potential box, also known as an infinite square well, is a theoretical concept in quantum mechanics. It describes a 1-dimensional or 3-dimensional box in which a particle is confined by infinitely high potential barriers on all sides.

What are the properties of an infinite potential box?

The properties of an infinite potential box include having finite boundaries, a constant potential energy inside the box, and zero potential energy outside the box. The particle inside the box can only have discrete energy levels and cannot exist outside of the box.

What is the significance of an infinite potential box?

The infinite potential box serves as a simplified model for understanding quantum phenomena such as energy quantization and wave-particle duality. It is also used to solve problems in quantum mechanics, such as calculating the probability of finding a particle in a certain energy level.

What are the limitations of an infinite potential box?

An infinite potential box is a theoretical concept and does not exist in the physical world. It is a simplified model and does not take into account other factors such as particle interactions and the effects of external forces. It also assumes that the potential energy is constant inside the box, which is not always the case.

How is an infinite potential box related to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to simultaneously know the exact position and momentum of a particle. In an infinite potential box, the particle is confined to a specific region, resulting in a high uncertainty in its momentum. This principle can be applied to predict the behavior of particles inside the infinite potential box.

Similar threads

  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
24
Views
763
Replies
16
Views
509
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
906
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
9
Views
1K
Replies
10
Views
301
Replies
1
Views
685
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
976
Replies
1
Views
594
Back
Top