- #1
fishingspree2
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I was reading here https://www.physicsforums.com/library.php?do=view_item&itemid=294
gauss law's for magnetism says
∮B⋅dA = 0
but then faraday's law has d/dt ∮B⋅dA in it. Well if its 0 then d/dt of 0 is 0.
gauss law's for magnetism says
∮B⋅dA = 0
but then faraday's law has d/dt ∮B⋅dA in it. Well if its 0 then d/dt of 0 is 0.