- #1
yungman
- 5,718
- 241
For wave equation:
[tex]\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2} \;=\; c^2\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} \;\;,\;\; u(x,0)\; =\; f(x) \;\;,\;\; \frac{\partial u}{\partial t}(x,0) \;=\; g(x)[/tex]
D'Alembert Mothod:
[tex] u(x,t)\; = \;\frac{1}{2} f(x\;-\;ct)\; +\; \frac{1}{2} f(x\;+\;ct)\; +\; \frac{1}{2c} \int_{x-ct}^{x+ct} \; g(s) ds \;\;[/tex]
Why the book call [tex]f(x\;-\;ct)\; ,\; f(x\;+\;ct)[/tex] odd extention of f(x)?
[tex]\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2} \;=\; c^2\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} \;\;,\;\; u(x,0)\; =\; f(x) \;\;,\;\; \frac{\partial u}{\partial t}(x,0) \;=\; g(x)[/tex]
D'Alembert Mothod:
[tex] u(x,t)\; = \;\frac{1}{2} f(x\;-\;ct)\; +\; \frac{1}{2} f(x\;+\;ct)\; +\; \frac{1}{2c} \int_{x-ct}^{x+ct} \; g(s) ds \;\;[/tex]
Why the book call [tex]f(x\;-\;ct)\; ,\; f(x\;+\;ct)[/tex] odd extention of f(x)?