- #1
good_phy
- 45
- 0
Hi.
Recently day, I tried to solve quantum mechanics problem in liboff fourth version to prepare
graduate school.
But what make me be confused a lot is Dirac Delta Function.
One of my confusing on Dirac Delta is what i wrote below.
-One of the formula describing Dira Delta Function is [tex] \int_{\infty}^{\infty}e^{-2{\pi}
(k_{2}-k_{1})}dt = \delta (k_{2}-k_{1}) [/tex]
If, we are replacing [itex] \infty [/itex] some finite constance, it means integration range
changed to some finite range, Do we still get [itex] \delta (k_{2}-k_{1}) [/itex]
This is important problem because a lot of quantum problem have finite range, so orthogonality is damaged if delta function can not be derived from finite integral.
please assist to me. Thank you.
Recently day, I tried to solve quantum mechanics problem in liboff fourth version to prepare
graduate school.
But what make me be confused a lot is Dirac Delta Function.
One of my confusing on Dirac Delta is what i wrote below.
-One of the formula describing Dira Delta Function is [tex] \int_{\infty}^{\infty}e^{-2{\pi}
(k_{2}-k_{1})}dt = \delta (k_{2}-k_{1}) [/tex]
If, we are replacing [itex] \infty [/itex] some finite constance, it means integration range
changed to some finite range, Do we still get [itex] \delta (k_{2}-k_{1}) [/itex]
This is important problem because a lot of quantum problem have finite range, so orthogonality is damaged if delta function can not be derived from finite integral.
please assist to me. Thank you.
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