Why was homosexuality more prevalent in ancient Greece and Rome?

[silenzer]

Your own personal experiences with associated cultural biases are not evidence. If you present a claim, one which it is clearly possible to look up, then you are expected to do so on this site. I suggest you don't make any claims of this nature until you can provide references to studies demonstrating this. In fact why don't you specifically look for studies utilising the Kinsey scale?

Now I feel you are only disagreeing with me out of spite. Sometimes, when your opponent makes a common sense claim he can't prove, you'll have to take it for granted, because it's common sense. Would you agree that everyone has the capability to love someone of the same sex today? Society would clearly demonstrate that I'm wrong if I am. If everyone had homosexual tendencies, society would be radically different from what it is now. But it isn't.

edit - I suppose this could help

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographics_of_sexual_orientation

If it were 70/30, you would think that these surveys would show something else. But they rarely even go above 5%.

I'm not suggesting we assume anything, I'm suggesting you do some further research into this quote (and related texts) to clarify these points.

No thanks. You can't discredit my point with that without saying that you can also discredit any translated Greek text ever written without evidence.

 

[Ryan_m_b]

Now I feel you are only disagreeing with me out of spite. Sometimes, when your opponent makes a common sense claim he can't prove, you'll have to take it for granted, because it's common sense.

Utterly not the case. Your personal experiences are not going to be the same as everyone else's, using them as evidence is not acceptable. "Common sense" for you is not going to be the same for others, especially from other countries (in my personal experience the number of people who have had homosexual experiences and relationships whilst identifying as heterosexual is significantly high. But that isn't evidence of anything other than diversity of experience).

Would you agree that everyone has the capability to love someone of the same sex today? Society would clearly demonstrate that I'm wrong if I am. If everyone had homosexual tendencies, society would be radically different from what it is now. But it isn't.

No I wouldn't agree that everyone is purely bisexual as you seem to be implying here. I am claiming that the strict division of sexual orientation and practice that your argument imposes are not reflected in reality.

edit - I suppose this could help

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographics_of_sexual_orientation

But we aren't looking for the percentage of a population that identifies as homosexual or not. The entire point of this thread has been whether or not behaviour is a true reflection of identity. If you want to get an answer to your question you're going to have to do more than fire up wikipedia and actually do some reading on the subject. Hence my suggestion that you look up articles on the kinsey scale or read the article I posted about men who have sex with men and read on from there.

No thanks. You can't discredit my point with that without saying that you can also discredit any translated Greek text ever written without evidence.

I'm not discrediting it. I'm asking you for clarification which you are unable to provide. You're quoting one sentence, on wikipedia of all places, as an attempt to substantiate the claim that an ancient army was made up of people who we would identify as homosexual in the modern, western world.