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For example, it could be said that the equation ∇*B= 0 is based on the observation that there are no magnetic monopoles.
But for Faraday's law of induction, it is easy to derive it from other equations but it's hard to say on what empirical law it is based. Could it be said that it is itself an empirical law and definition of it shall suffice?
But for Faraday's law of induction, it is easy to derive it from other equations but it's hard to say on what empirical law it is based. Could it be said that it is itself an empirical law and definition of it shall suffice?