- #1
AxiomOfChoice
- 533
- 1
Suppose you know that a sequence [itex]\{f_n\}[/itex] of functions converges pointwise to 0 on the whole real line. If there is a subsequence [itex]\{f_{n_k}\}[/itex] of the original sequence that converges uniformly to a limiting function [itex]f[/itex] on the whole real line, does that limiting function have to be 0?