- #1
geoduck
- 258
- 2
If the probability for a state α prepared initially to be in a state β at a later time is given by:
[tex]S_{\beta \alpha} S_{\beta \alpha}^* [/tex]
and for a state β prepared intitially to become a state α is: [itex]S_{ \alpha \beta} S_{ \alpha \beta}^* [/itex]
then in order for the two to be equal (by time-reversal symmetry), then doesn't S have to be Hermitian?
[tex]S_{ \alpha \beta}=S_{\beta \alpha}^*[/tex]
[tex]S_{\beta \alpha} S_{\beta \alpha}^* [/tex]
and for a state β prepared intitially to become a state α is: [itex]S_{ \alpha \beta} S_{ \alpha \beta}^* [/itex]
then in order for the two to be equal (by time-reversal symmetry), then doesn't S have to be Hermitian?
[tex]S_{ \alpha \beta}=S_{\beta \alpha}^*[/tex]