Inverse Trig Function Derivative (Apostol Section 6.22 #11)

In summary, Apostol argues that if f'(x) = 0 for each x in an open interval I, then f is constant on I. However, at x=0 there is a discontinuity, and on either side of 0 it would apply but the constants are not equal.
  • #1
process91
106
0

Homework Statement


Given that [itex]\frac{d}{dx} (\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{1/x})=0 \hspace{10mm} \forall x \ne 0[/itex],
prove that there is no constant C such that [itex]\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}=C \hspace{10mm} \forall x \ne 0[/itex]
and explain why this does not contradict the zero-derivative theorem.


Homework Equations


The Zero-Derivative Theorem:
If f'(x) = 0 for each x in an open interval I, then f is constant on I.


The Attempt at a Solution


The first part of this problem has you verify that the derivative is indeed zero, which I did verify. I think that [itex]\text{arccot}{x}-\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}=0 \hspace{10mm} \forall x \ne 0[/itex], however, since [itex]\text{arccot}{x}=y \implies x=\cot{y} \implies \frac{1}{x} = \tan{y} \implies \arctan{\frac{1}{x}}=y[/itex].

WolframAlpha seems to agree:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=arccot(x)+-+arctan(1/x)

So is Apostol not considering 0 a constant (that is, when he refers to "a constant C", is C necessarily not equal to 0)?
 
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  • #2
  • #3
OK, so the reason my "proof" that it is equal to zero doesn't work is in the last step, where [itex]\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}[/itex] may equal y (if [itex]y\in(0,\frac{\pi}{2})[/itex]), or it may equal [itex]y-\pi[/itex], correct?

Then the reason that this is not a contradiction of the zero derivative theorem is that at x=0 there is a discontinuity, and on either side of 0 it would apply but the constants are not equal.
 
  • #5
Thanks for your help! I'm loving Apostol's book so far.
 
  • #6
process91 said:
Thanks for your help! I'm loving Apostol's book so far.

It's one of my favorite books as well :biggrin:
 

1. What is the definition of an inverse trig function?

An inverse trigonometric function is a function that undoes the work of a corresponding trigonometric function. It takes a value from the range of the trigonometric function as its input and returns an angle as its output.

2. Why do we need inverse trig functions?

Inverse trig functions are needed because they allow us to solve for angles in right triangles when we know the ratios of sides. They also have numerous applications in physics, engineering, and other fields.

3. How do you find the derivative of an inverse trig function?

To find the derivative of an inverse trig function, we use the chain rule. We first rewrite the inverse trig function as a composition of two functions and then apply the chain rule to find the derivative.

4. What is the derivative of arctan(x)?

The derivative of arctan(x) is 1 / (1 + x^2). This can be found by rewriting arctan(x) as a composition of two functions, using the chain rule, and simplifying the resulting expression.

5. Are there any special cases when finding the derivative of an inverse trig function?

Yes, there are a few special cases when finding the derivative of an inverse trig function. For example, the derivative of arccos(x) is -1 / √(1 - x^2) and the derivative of arcsin(x) is 1 / √(1 - x^2). Additionally, the derivatives of inverse trig functions can result in undefined values for certain inputs, such as arctan(x) having an undefined derivative at x = -1 and x = 1.

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