This is the Hilbert space for the Dirac spinor and state vector.

In summary: The algebra of observables isA = End(F).So "particle" and "antiparticle" are just different names for the same object, spinor wave functions. All of these spinor wave functions may be interpreted as belonging to a single Hilbert space, H=F. In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of Dirac spinors and their relationship to Hilbert space. While Dirac spinors are not traditionally considered to be in any Hilbert space due to their lack of a positive definite norm, they can be interpreted as belonging to a Hilbert space with a pseudo-Riemannian metric. This is achieved by using a step function to restrict the negative energy components and constructing a Hilbert space for single ant
  • #1
kof9595995
679
2
I believe Dirac spinors are not in any Hilbert space since it has no positive definite norm. However one QM axiom I learned told me any quantum state is represented by a state vector in Hilbert space, so what is happening to Dirac spinor?Or is it just that the axiom is not for relativistic QM?
 
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  • #2
Considering ψ(x,t) to be a function, we expand it in plane waves,

ψ(x,t) = ∫√(m/E) (upexpi(p·x-ωt) + vpexpi(p·x-ωt)) d3p

The normalization is ∫ψ(x,t)ψ(x,t) d3x = ∫ (upup - vpvp) d3p

and as you point out this is not positive definite, due to the "negative energy states" v.

In the second quantized version u and v become operators which obey anticommutation relations. But even so, if you interpret u and v as annihilation operators the theory has negative energy states and an indefinite norm.

The solution is to reinterpret v as a creation operator: vk = wk. Then vpvp ≡ wpwp = 1 - wpwp and the norm is

ψ(x,t)ψ(x,t) d3x = ∫ (upup + wpwp) d3p - ∫1 d3p

The infinite negative part is discarded, leaving us with a positive definite norm.
 
  • #3
Dirac spinors are plane wave solutions to the Dirac equation that relies on a background metric (which is actually a Pseudo-Riemannian metric, i.e. not positive definite).
We also know that the plane wave solutions form a basis of a (infinite-dimensional) Hilbert space, which has it's own inner product that is positive definite.
So basically the answer to your question is that there are two 'metrics' at work: the positive definite metric of the Hilbert space and the pseudo-riemannian metric introduced by the Dirac equation.
 
  • #4
The norm is positive-definite, even without moving to operators. I don't know if this is readable, but try

http://www.math.niu.edu/~rusin/known-math/01_incoming/QFT .
 
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  • #5
I see, I was reading some history of relativistic QM and I should've switched my mind to field theory, thank you!

EDIT:This is a reply to Bill_k and I'm now reading George's material, and see if it'll make a difference:)
 
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  • #6
George, Unfortunately I disagree with your article. Perhaps I 'm misunderstanding it, but it says,
The inner product on spinor wave function space G = { f | f : R^4 -> D }
is defined to be

/
<f|g> = |f(p)^+ gamma^0 g(p) d mu ,
/

where, as above, the integration measure is given by

d mu delta( p^mu p_mu - m^2) theta(p^0) dp^0 dp^1 dp^2 dp^3 .
What I do not want to see is the theta function. For sure this is Lorentz invariant, and for sure it is positive definite, but you've made it so by excluding the negative frequency components entirely, which is exactly what must not be done.

A theory without antiparticles is acausal. Things look Ok as long as you talk only about the free field, but any interaction will bring in the Green's function, and it will be nonzero outside the light cone. Antiparticles are the cure to this problem and must be included.

If I've misunderstood, I apologize and am ready to be corrected on this.
 
  • #7
Yes my state space is only for a single particle, but I think it can be extended to (free)antiparticle and multiparticle state spaces by appropriate direct sums and tensor products. I could be wrong, though, as I never really learned quantum field theory. I have a reference that treats this nicely, but it's terse, tough going, so it might take me some time (if at all) to figure this out.
 
  • #8
Bill_K said:
What I do not want to see is the theta function. For sure this is Lorentz invariant, and for sure it is positive definite, but you've made it so by excluding the negative frequency components entirely, which is exactly what must not be done.

Yes, the Hilbert space constructed in post#4 is the Hilbert space for a single particle. Denote this space by [itex]H_+[/itex]. Construct the multiparticle Fermionic Fock space [itex]F_1[/itex] from this single particle state space. Annihilation and creation operators for particles operate on [itex]F_1[/itex].

Now use an appropriate step function to restrict to the negative energy mass shell, and construct a Hilbert space [itex]H_-[/itex] as the Hilbert space of single antiparticle states. The charge conjugation operator [itex]C[/itex] maps [itex]H_\pm[/itex] to [itex]H_\mp[/itex].

Antiparticles have positive mass, so, for the space multi-antiparticle states, construct another Fermionic Fock space [itex]F_2[/itex] (separate from [itex]F_1[/itex]) from the Hilbert space [itex]H_+[/itex]. Use the the standard annihilation and creation operators together with [itex]C[/itex] to annihilate and create postive mass antiparticle states in [itex]F_2[/itex] that correspond to negative energy states in [itex]H_-[/itex].

Finally, the total Fock space, a genuine Hilbert space, is

[tex]F = F_1 \otimes F{_2} .[/tex]
 

1. What is a Dirac spinor?

A Dirac spinor is a mathematical object used in theoretical physics to describe the quantum state of a particle with spin 1/2. It consists of four complex-valued components and is a solution to the Dirac equation, which describes the behavior of spin 1/2 particles in relativistic quantum mechanics.

2. How is a Dirac spinor related to a state vector?

A Dirac spinor is related to a state vector through the spinor field, which is a four-component vector field that describes the quantum state of a particle at each point in space and time. The state vector is a mathematical representation of the state of a quantum system, and the spinor field is one way to describe it.

3. What is the significance of the Dirac equation in quantum mechanics?

The Dirac equation is significant because it was the first equation to describe the behavior of spin 1/2 particles in relativistic quantum mechanics. It is also important because it predicted the existence of antimatter, which was later experimentally confirmed. The equation also led to the development of the Dirac spinor, which is an essential mathematical tool in quantum field theory.

4. How are Dirac spinors used in particle physics?

Dirac spinors are used in particle physics to describe the quantum state of fundamental particles, such as electrons and quarks, with spin 1/2. They are also used in the Standard Model of particle physics to describe the interactions between particles and their corresponding antiparticles. The spinor field, which is based on Dirac spinors, is a fundamental component of quantum field theory and is used to calculate particle interactions and predict their behavior.

5. Are there any real-world applications of Dirac spinors?

Yes, there are several real-world applications of Dirac spinors. They are used in medical imaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and positron emission tomography (PET). They are also used in the development of new materials, such as topological insulators, which have potential applications in electronics and quantum computing. Additionally, Dirac spinors are used in the study of high-energy particle collisions, which can help us understand the fundamental building blocks of our universe.

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