How to Prove Lorentz Invariance of Volume Element in Momentum Space?

In summary, it was discussed how to prove the volume element of momentum space (d3k/Ek) is Lorentz invariant. It was suggested to use the Jacobian of the transformation and the momentum-energy Lorentz transformations. Another approach mentioned was using the delta function, which is clearly invariant under Lorentz transformations. The difference between old-fashioned QFT perturbation theory and modern covariant perturbation theory was also mentioned, with the former using the d3k approach and the latter using the d4k approach.
  • #1
Leeds student
4
0
Simple question.. How do you prove the volume element of momentum space (d3k/Ek) is Lorentz Invariant?

I tried making it proportional to "velocity volume element" derived from the Lorentz transformations but didn't seem to get very far.
 
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  • #2
Leeds student said:
Simple question.. How do you prove the volume element of momentum space (d3k/Ek) is Lorentz Invariant?

I tried making it proportional to "velocity volume element" derived from the Lorentz transformations but didn't seem to get very far.
Are you sure its supposed to be invariant?

Pete
 
  • #3
Leeds student said:
Simple question.. How do you prove the volume element of momentum space (d3k/Ek) is Lorentz Invariant?

Basically, what you need to prove is

[tex] \frac{d^3k'}{E_{k'}} = \frac{d^3k}{E_{k}} [/tex]

where 4-vectors [itex] (\mathbf{k'}, E_{k'}) [/itex] and [itex] (\mathbf{k}, E_{k}) [/itex] are related to each other by a Lorentz transformation. To do that you just need to calculate the Jacobian of the transformation [itex] \mathbf{k'} \to \mathbf{k} [/itex].

Eugene.
 
  • #4
meopemuk said:
Basically, what you need to prove is

[tex] \frac{d^3k'}{E_{k'}} = \frac{d^3k}{E_{k}} [/tex]

where 4-vectors [itex] (\mathbf{k'}, E_{k'}) [/itex] and [itex] (\mathbf{k}, E_{k}) [/itex] are related to each other by a Lorentz transformation. To do that you just need to calculate the Jacobian of the transformation [itex] \mathbf{k'} \to \mathbf{k} [/itex].

Eugene.

Yes, that's exactly what I was trying to show.
I looked up Jacobian's and for that transformation I calculated the determinant to be: [tex]\gamma[/tex] (Lorentz factor). So I tried another approach and got a 3x4 matrix which I can't find how to solve.

I know it should be quite trivial and only a few lines but I keep getting stuck. Please point me in the right direction to complete this. Do I even need the velocity transforms? Or does [tex]k_{x'}[/tex] transform like x' etc?
 
  • #5
Leeds student said:
Yes, that's exactly what I was trying to show.
I looked up Jacobian's and for that transformation I calculated the determinant to be: [tex]\gamma[/tex] (Lorentz factor).

I think you are on the right track here. The momentum-energy Lorentz transformations are (if the velocity v of the moving reference frame is along the x-axis)

[tex] k'_x = k_x \cosh \theta - E_k/c \sinh \theta [/tex]
[tex] k'_y = k_y[/tex]
[tex] k'_z = k_z [/tex]
[tex] E'_k = E_k \cosh \theta - k_x c \sinh \theta [/tex]

where [itex] v = c \tanh \theta [/itex]; [itex] \gamma \equiv \cosh \theta [/itex]

Eugene.
 
  • #6
Upon thinking this over more it occurred to me that what you called "volume element of momentum space" and the quantity (d^3k/Ek) are not the same. If it was then it'd be

momentum density = d^3p/dV

That quantity is the compent of a 4-tensor and is not invariant. I don't see the connection between what you say and the expressions you write. And you never answered my question: Why do you think it should be invariant? Was this a homework assignment?

Pete
 
  • #7
pmb_phy said:
Upon thinking this over more it occurred to me that what you called "volume element of momentum space" and the quantity (d^3k/Ek) are not the same. If it was then it'd be

momentum density = d^3p/dV

That quantity is the compent of a 4-tensor and is not invariant. I don't see the connection between what you say and the expressions you write. And you never answered my question: Why do you think it should be invariant? Was this a homework assignment?

Pete

This was not homework but a practice question. To show (what they called a volume element) [tex]\frac{d^{3}k}{E_{k}}[/tex] is Lorentz invariant. The post above answers my question, thanks to both of you.
 
  • #8
Leeds student said:
This was not homework but a practice question. To show (what they called a volume element) [tex]\frac{d^{3}k}{E_{k}}[/tex] is Lorentz invariant. The post above answers my question, thanks to both of you.

You would be doing me a great service if you post the question exactly as it was stated in your source. I find this to be an interesting topic and I'd like to familiarize myself with it. Thanks.

Best wishes

Pete
 
  • #9
Leeds student said:
Simple question.. How do you prove the volume element of momentum space (d3k/Ek) is Lorentz Invariant?

I tried making it proportional to "velocity volume element" derived from the Lorentz transformations but didn't seem to get very far.



dans les transformation de lorentz V'=V/(1-v2/c2)^3/2
 
  • #10
lebashad said:
dans les transformation de lorentz V'=V/(1-v2/c2)^3/2



Sorry I am French!
In the transformation of the volume is lorentz V '= V / (1-v2/c2) ^ 3 / 2
 
  • #11
My question still remains to be answered, i.e. to Leeds student
You would be doing me a great service if you post the question exactly as it was stated in your source. I find this to be an interesting topic and I'd like to familiarize myself with it. Thanks.

Best wishes

Pete
 
  • #12
The easist way to show the invariance of d3k/E(k) is via a delta function,
delta(E^^2 - P^^2 - M^^2) ==D, which is clearly invariant under LTs. Evaluate

Integral( d4k D) and you will get the answer you want. (Note, this is a fairly standard approach, and can be found in many texts on E&M and QFT.)
Regards,
Reilly Atkinson
 
  • #13
pmb_phy said:
My question still remains to be answered, i.e. to Leeds student


Best wishes

Pete

I did, it was:
Show that the volume element [tex]\frac{d^{3}k}{E_{k}}[/tex] is Lorentz invariant
 
  • #14
reilly said:
The easist way to show the invariance of d3k/E(k) is via a delta function,
delta(E^^2 - P^^2 - M^^2) ==D, which is clearly invariant under LTs. Evaluate

Integral( d4k D) and you will get the answer you want. (Note, this is a fairly standard approach, and can be found in many texts on E&M and QFT.)
Regards,
Reilly Atkinson
In fact, for those who are interested, the difference between old-fashioned QFT perturbation theory -- Weisskopf, Pauli and Heisenberg, Dirac, etc -- and modern covariant perturbation theory -- Feynman, Schwinger, Tomonaga -- is exactly the two versions of d3k/E(k) and d4k delta(E^^2- P^^2 - M^^2); The non-covariant approach uses the d3k approach, while the covariant approach uses the d4k approach. I'm quite sure that this difference is discussed by Zee in his field theory book.

Regards,
Reilly Atkinson
 
  • #15
Leeds student said:
I did, it was:
Show that the volume element [tex]\frac{d^{3}k}{E_{k}}[/tex] is Lorentz invariant
Hmmm. That simple huh? Okay. Thank you.

By the way, Welcome to the Forum! :smile:

Best wishes

Pete
 

1. What is Lorentz invariance?

Lorentz invariance is the principle that the laws of physics should be the same for all observers moving at constant speeds relative to each other. This was first proposed by Dutch physicist Hendrik Lorentz in the late 19th century and later incorporated into Albert Einstein's theory of special relativity.

2. How does Lorentz invariance affect volume?

Lorentz invariance does not directly affect volume. However, it is a fundamental principle in the theory of special relativity, which predicts that the length, time, and mass of an object will change for observers moving at different speeds. This can indirectly affect the measured volume of an object, as it depends on its dimensions and the observer's frame of reference.

3. Can Lorentz invariance be violated?

There is currently no experimental evidence that Lorentz invariance can be violated. However, some theories, such as string theory and loop quantum gravity, propose modifications to the laws of physics that could potentially violate Lorentz invariance at very small scales.

4. What is the connection between Lorentz invariance and the speed of light?

Lorentz invariance is closely related to the constant speed of light, which is a fundamental tenet of special relativity. According to this theory, the speed of light is the same for all observers, regardless of their relative motion. This means that the laws of physics, including Lorentz invariance, must hold true for all observers, regardless of their speed.

5. How is Lorentz invariance tested?

Lorentz invariance is a fundamental principle that underlies many well-established physical theories, such as special relativity and quantum field theory. Therefore, it is indirectly tested through experiments and observations that confirm the predictions of these theories. Direct tests of Lorentz invariance can also be performed using high-precision experiments, such as tests of the constancy of the speed of light or the behavior of particles at high energies.

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