- #1
sadness
- 7
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On page 10 of Goldstein's classical mechanics, it was said:
"If [tex]V_{jj}[/tex] were also a function of the difference of some other pair of vectors associated with the particles, such as their velocities or (to step into the domain of modern physics) their intrinsic "spin" angular momenta, then the forces would still be equal and opposite, but would not necessarily lie along the direction between the particles."
What does this mean? IMO if a potential is dependent on velocities, the forces derived typically will not respect any aspects of the law of action and reaction. Why would they still be equal and opposite?
"If [tex]V_{jj}[/tex] were also a function of the difference of some other pair of vectors associated with the particles, such as their velocities or (to step into the domain of modern physics) their intrinsic "spin" angular momenta, then the forces would still be equal and opposite, but would not necessarily lie along the direction between the particles."
What does this mean? IMO if a potential is dependent on velocities, the forces derived typically will not respect any aspects of the law of action and reaction. Why would they still be equal and opposite?