- #1
boltcrank
- 3
- 0
So I'm supposing a scenario where you have energy transfer into a solid and waves propagating out from the impact point and i want to measure the energy at different distances from the "epicenter" with sensors.
the relationships I've been pointed to are basically conservation of energy at the different distances and something along the lines of the double integral of the full circle of the wave and of the distance from the epicenter multiplied by things like wave strength and thickness, which can then be converted to an integral of wave speed over time.
then I've also been pointed out that with a piezoelectric sensor, that can further be converted to a measure of voltage squared integrated over time multiplied by a series of things, but then the distance from the wave source is pulled out as a constant.
my question involves this supposition then that the energy of a wave at a specific point and distance from the wave source will be proportional to the integral of the voltage squared over time, MULTIPLIED by the distance.
Is this indeed a valid relationship? so would it be correct to say that there is a distance and voltage where a sensor further away from a source than another might regardless measure a larger energy? what kind of relationship is this? because apparently its not the linear one i thought it would be.
the relationships I've been pointed to are basically conservation of energy at the different distances and something along the lines of the double integral of the full circle of the wave and of the distance from the epicenter multiplied by things like wave strength and thickness, which can then be converted to an integral of wave speed over time.
then I've also been pointed out that with a piezoelectric sensor, that can further be converted to a measure of voltage squared integrated over time multiplied by a series of things, but then the distance from the wave source is pulled out as a constant.
my question involves this supposition then that the energy of a wave at a specific point and distance from the wave source will be proportional to the integral of the voltage squared over time, MULTIPLIED by the distance.
Is this indeed a valid relationship? so would it be correct to say that there is a distance and voltage where a sensor further away from a source than another might regardless measure a larger energy? what kind of relationship is this? because apparently its not the linear one i thought it would be.