- #1
Bobbo Snap
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For my senior physics research project I've developed an orbital analysis program that calculates the minimum [itex] \Delta V [/itex] required (applied in an instantaneous impulse) to deflect an inbound Earth impacting asteroid. I've generated data for several different hypothetical orbits and now my advisor would like me to compare my data with a slow-push deflection method which uses the force of an array of permanent magnets (attached to a spacecraft ) to impart the deflection force. I need to generate a rough estimate of the force I would be able to generate from such an array. Then I can integrate this over some time intervals and compare to the deflection data I have. The goal is to see if this configuration has any advantages over the gravity tractor slow-push method.
The problem is calculating the force this magnet array could generate. I realize this is hugely complicated problem to solve but I was hoping I could calculate a rough estimate if I make some assumptions about the asteroids make-up. I'm thinking of using the pull force equation [tex] F = \frac{B^2 A}{2 \mu_0} [/tex] of a single permanent magnet and scaling this up to a particular array size. However, this equation obviously has no explicit dependence on the distance from the magnet. Is this included in B? If so, which equation for B would be applicable to the permanent magnet on a ferrous body situation. Any thoughts would be appreciated. And feel free to ask for clarification, I'm writing this in quite a hurry.
The problem is calculating the force this magnet array could generate. I realize this is hugely complicated problem to solve but I was hoping I could calculate a rough estimate if I make some assumptions about the asteroids make-up. I'm thinking of using the pull force equation [tex] F = \frac{B^2 A}{2 \mu_0} [/tex] of a single permanent magnet and scaling this up to a particular array size. However, this equation obviously has no explicit dependence on the distance from the magnet. Is this included in B? If so, which equation for B would be applicable to the permanent magnet on a ferrous body situation. Any thoughts would be appreciated. And feel free to ask for clarification, I'm writing this in quite a hurry.