Inner Product Space of two orthogonal Vectors is 0 , Is this defined as it is ?

In summary, the inner product of two orthogonal vectors is defined to be 0. This definition applies to any vector space, including the complex vector space V. In R2 or R3, the geometric definition of orthogonal is equivalent to the definition using the inner product. For higher dimensions, it is simplest to take the inner product of two orthogonal vectors to be 0. In a complex inner product space, if an operator T satisfies <Tv,v> = 0 for all v in V, then T must be equal to 0. The existence of orthogonality in n-dimensional vectors in C^n is not affected by this definition. However, it is possible for Tv to be orthogonal to v in a mathematical sense, even if
  • #1
vish_maths
61
1
This may be a very silly question, but still apologies, I read in Sheldon Axler, that the inner product of two orthogonal vectors is DEFINED to be 0.
Let u,v belong to C^n. I am unable to find a direction of proof which proves that for an nth dimension vector space, if u perp. to v, then <u,v> = 0
Is it really just defined ? Or it can be proved to be 0 ?
 
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  • #2
vish_maths said:
This may be a very silly question, but still apologies, I read in Sheldon Axler, that the inner product of two orthogonal vectors is DEFINED to be 0.

This is not correct. Rather, we define two vectors to be orthogonal if their inner product is 0.
So given [itex]u,v\in \mathbb{C}^n[/itex], we say that u and v are orthogonal iff <u,v>=0. This is a definition.
 
  • #3
It can be shown, in R2 or R3, where we have a geometric definition of "orthogonal", that two vectors are orthogonal if and only if their dot product is 0. For higher dimension Euclidean spaces or more general vector spaces, it is simplest to take "inner product is 0" as the definition of "orthogonal".
 
  • #4
Thanks a lot :). There has been just one more question which has been lingering in my mind.

If V is a complex inner product space and T is an operator on V such that <Tv,v> = 0 for all v belongs to V. Then T =0.
Though, it's proof is somewhat convincing , it has left me confused about
a) the existence of orthogonality in n dimensional vectors belong to C^n
b) if the answer above is yes, then why can't Tv be orthogonal to v. ( even if it's not visual, I mean in the mathematical sense)
 
  • #5


I can confirm that the inner product of two orthogonal vectors is indeed defined as 0. This definition is based on the properties of inner product spaces, where the inner product is a function that takes two vectors and produces a scalar value. In this case, the definition states that the inner product of two orthogonal vectors will always be 0, regardless of the dimension of the vector space.

However, this definition can also be proved using mathematical proofs and properties of inner product spaces. For example, in a complex vector space, the inner product is defined as <u,v> = u* * v, where u* represents the complex conjugate of u. Therefore, if u and v are orthogonal, their inner product would be <u,v> = u* * v = 0, since the complex conjugate of a number multiplied by its orthogonal complement is always 0.

In summary, the inner product of two orthogonal vectors is both defined to be 0 and can be proved to be 0 using mathematical proofs and properties of inner product spaces.
 

1. What is an inner product space?

An inner product space is a vector space equipped with an inner product, which is a mathematical operation that takes two vectors as input and produces a scalar as output. This operation is similar to the dot product in Euclidean space, but it is more general and can be defined for a wider range of vector spaces.

2. What does it mean for two vectors to be orthogonal?

Two vectors are orthogonal if they are perpendicular to each other, meaning that their dot product is equal to 0. Geometrically, this means that the two vectors form a right angle with each other. In an inner product space, the concept of orthogonality is extended to include complex vector spaces as well.

3. Why is the inner product of two orthogonal vectors defined as 0?

The inner product of two orthogonal vectors is defined as 0 because it is a natural extension of the concept of orthogonality in Euclidean space. In Euclidean space, the dot product of two perpendicular vectors is equal to 0. In an inner product space, the inner product is a generalization of the dot product, so it makes sense for the inner product of orthogonal vectors to also be 0.

4. Can two non-orthogonal vectors have an inner product of 0?

No, two non-orthogonal vectors cannot have an inner product of 0. The inner product of two vectors is only equal to 0 if the vectors are orthogonal. If the vectors are not orthogonal, their inner product will be a non-zero value.

5. How is the inner product of two vectors calculated in an inner product space?

The inner product of two vectors in an inner product space is calculated using the inner product operation, which is typically denoted by < , > or ( , ). The specific formula for the inner product may vary depending on the vector space and the type of vectors being used, but the basic idea is to multiply the corresponding components of the two vectors and then sum up the results. This operation is also sometimes referred to as the scalar product or the Hermitian product.

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