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I have been mucking around with Gleasons therom of late and noticed it was mentioned in some literature it has the Kochen-Specker theorem as a corollary and thought what the heck let's see if I can prove it. It was trivial which started me thinking why it is not presented that way in textbooks. All I can think is that maybe it is thought the proof of Gleasons is a bit hard. However in recent times a quite simple proof based on POVM's has been found. So maybe I am missing something. Anyone got any other ideas or is it simply the newer proof of Gleasons theorem haven't filtered down to the textbooks yet?
Thanks
Bill
Thanks
Bill