What is the speed of a pendulum at point D?

  • Thread starter Quark Itself
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In summary: PE would indeed be converted into KE as the ball fell down, and then back into PE as it slowed and stopped at the bottom of the swing, then back into KE, etc. The speed of the ball would vary, being fastest at the bottom and slowest at the top. Also, the speed at any point would depend on the angle of the swing, so that if the swing angle were small, the speed would be small, and if the swing angle were large, the speed would be large. I think this is all true, but it would be good to get some other opinions.If the peg weren't there, and if the angle of the swing were not so big that the string started to buckle
  • #1
Quark Itself
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Homework Statement


A pendulum, consisting of a metal sphere and a massless string of length L, is initially held horizontal from a fixed support at point P. The pendulum is released from rest and it swings. It then hits a peg at point O and the distance between P and O is assumed to be Y. From there the sphere swings upwards in an arc, so what is the sphere's speed at point D?


Homework Equations


W = fdcos(theta)
KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf (i = initial and f = final)


The Attempt at a Solution


I figured that the PE is zero from point A since it's at rest and then I got stuck as the second part of the problem rose, when the sphere swings upwards.

I had a link to a picture, but it refuses to upload, but I'll try to upload it for later.
 
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  • #2
http://i56.tinypic.com/2mmbq4z.png
and here's the picture that is provided for the problem

and I figured that you should split it up into components in y and x-axis directions, but still clueless from there, any tips?
 
  • #3
Quark Itself said:

Homework Statement


A pendulum, consisting of a metal sphere and a massless string of length L, is initially held horizontal from a fixed support at point P. The pendulum is released from rest and it swings. It then hits a peg at point O and the distance between P and O is assumed to be Y. From there the sphere swings upwards in an arc, so what is the sphere's speed at point D?


Homework Equations


W = fdcos(theta)
KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf (i = initial and f = final)


The Attempt at a Solution


I figured that the PE is zero from point A since it's at rest and then I got stuck as the second part of the problem rose, when the sphere swings upwards.

I had a link to a picture, but it refuses to upload, but I'll try to upload it for later.

I believe the energy approach is the best way to go. But I would call the PE zero at the bottom, so at first, the ball has some PE due to it's initial height, and no KE, because it's at rest as you say.

Use the PEi to calculate the KE at the bottom, which gives you the initial velocity for the upward swing about the new pivot point. At the top of the second part of the swing, there will be a non-zero PE, and a corresponding KE...
 
  • #4
berkeman said:
I believe the energy approach is the best way to go. But I would call the PE zero at the bottom, so at first, the ball has some PE due to it's initial height, and no KE, because it's at rest as you say.

Use the PEi to calculate the KE at the bottom, which gives you the initial velocity for the upward swing about the new pivot point. At the top of the second part of the swing, there will be a non-zero PE, and a corresponding KE...

Aha ! I think I get it, however, what is meant with pivot point?
so it will be like 2 simultaneous equations?
KEf of the first part of the swing will be KEi of the second part of the swing, if you understand what I mean?
 
  • #5
Quark Itself said:
Aha ! I think I get it, however, what is meant with pivot point?
so it will be like 2 simultaneous equations?

Not sure you need simultaneous equations...

Quark Itself said:
KEf of the first part of the swing will be KEi of the second part of the swing, if you understand what I mean?

Yes.
 
  • #6
Thanks for the help, but I might need to justify why PE at the bottom is of 0 value.
Why is that?
 
  • #7
Quark Itself said:
Thanks for the help, but I might need to justify why PE at the bottom is of 0 value.
Why is that?

Gravitational PE is totally relative -- relative to some datum where the PE = 0. Where you choose that datum is up to you. I like to choose the zero PE datum at the lowest point of travel of the object, with the mindset that it takes energy to lift the object up from that datum to wherever it starts its motion from. Feel free to define your datum wherever you want -- but if you define your datum as the starting point in this problem, you will get some negative PE values. No big deal, just a little less intuitive for me personally. You will still get the correct final answer either way.
 
  • #8
berkeman said:
Gravitational PE is totally relative -- relative to some datum where the PE = 0. Where you choose that datum is up to you. I like to choose the zero PE datum at the lowest point of travel of the object, with the mindset that it takes energy to lift the object up from that datum to wherever it starts its motion from. Feel free to define your datum wherever you want -- but if you define your datum as the starting point in this problem, you will get some negative PE values. No big deal, just a little less intuitive for me personally. You will still get the correct final answer either way.


What if the peg wasn't there? Would the PE be completely converted to KE as well, because keeping in mind that there has to be PE to lift the object upwards and thus when it goes 180 degrees swing, there has to be some PE in there converting to KE , am I right?
 
  • #9
Quark Itself said:
What if the peg wasn't there? Would the PE be completely converted to KE as well, because keeping in mind that there has to be PE to lift the object upwards and thus when it goes 180 degrees swing, there has to be some PE in there converting to KE , am I right?

If the peg weren't there, and if the angle of the swing were not so big that the string started to buckle near the top of the swings, then the energy would be all PE at the top of the swings, and all KE at the bottom (assuming you've defined your PE=0 datum at the bottom of the swing).
 
  • #10
Ok, I think I have a grip about this problem.
Thanks a lot for your support !
 
  • #11
I have yet another problem, I seem to get a different answer from the majority of my class, can anyone go through it to check?
 
  • #12
Quark Itself said:
I have yet another problem, I seem to get a different answer from the majority of my class, can anyone go through it to check?

Just post it in a new thread. We try to keep each thread focused just on one problem.
 
  • #13
berkeman said:
Just post it in a new thread. We try to keep each thread focused just on one problem.

But isn't this just the same problem , being questioned? And partially unsolved?
 
  • #14
Quark Itself said:
But isn't this just the same problem , being questioned? And partially unsolved?

Oh, I thought you were saying you had a different question. So yes, if it's still related to this problem, then it's appropriate to ask here in this thread. :smile:
 
  • #15
Well, yeah :)
The thing is now , people have gotten an answer that the speed at point D is sqrt of 4g(y-L) or it might be sqrt of 4g(L-y)
However, I get it to be sqrt of 2gy
 
  • #16
Quark Itself said:
Well, yeah :)
The thing is now , people have gotten an answer that the speed at point D is sqrt of 4g(y-L) or it might be sqrt of 4g(L-y)
However, I get it to be sqrt of 2gy

Please show all of your work -- that makes it much easier to comment...
 
  • #17
Wnc ( Work done by non-conservative forces) = 0
Therefore : PEi + KEi = PEf + KEf
point A through point B
PEa + KEa = PEb + KEb
KEa = 0 because it’s at rest and PEb is also 0 because it reaches the lowest point of travel
thus, PEa = KEb
h = L because it is attached by the string with length L
mgl = ½mVb2
Vb = sqrt of 2gl
From point B to D
KEb + PEb = PEd + KEd
PEb = 0 Ped = mg(L-y) (because it hits the point O)
½mVb2 = mg(L-y) + ½mVd2
*m cancel out*
½Vb2 = g(L-y) + ½Vd2
Vb2 = 2gl – 2gy + Vd2
Vb2 is also equal to 2gl from previous equation so
2gy = Vd2
and thus Vd = sqrt of 2gy
 
  • #18
Quark Itself said:
Wnc ( Work done by non-conservative forces) = 0
Therefore : PEi + KEi = PEf + KEf
point A through point B
PEa + KEa = PEb + KEb
KEa = 0 because it’s at rest and PEb is also 0 because it reaches the lowest point of travel
thus, PEa = KEb
h = L because it is attached by the string with length L
mgl = ½mVb2
Vb = sqrt of 2gl
From point B to D
KEb + PEb = PEd + KEd
PEb = 0 Ped = mg(L-y) (because it hits the point O)
½mVb2 = mg(L-y) + ½mVd2
*m cancel out*
½Vb2 = g(L-y) + ½Vd2
Vb2 = 2gl – 2gy + Vd2
Vb2 is also equal to 2gl from previous equation so
2gy = Vd2
and thus Vd = sqrt of 2gy

The only thing I see is that the height at D is 2*y, not L-y. Am I reading the figure correctly?
 
  • #19
berkeman said:
The only thing I see is that the height at D is 2*y, not L-y. Am I reading the figure correctly?

Why would it be 2y? I don't think you've read it incorrectly.
 
  • #20
Quark Itself said:
Why would it be 2y? I don't think you've read it incorrectly.

The radius of the smaller 2nd circle is y, isn't it? So the height the mass rises to is 2y, the diameter of the circle to get to point D?
 
  • #21
berkeman said:
The radius of the smaller 2nd circle is y, isn't it? So the height the mass rises to is 2y, the diameter of the circle to get to point D?

Oh right, it worked.
Thanks ! :D
 

What is a back and forth pendulum?

A back and forth pendulum is a type of pendulum that swings to and fro, rather than in a circular motion. It is also known as a simple pendulum and is often used as a demonstration of simple harmonic motion in physics experiments.

How does a back and forth pendulum work?

A back and forth pendulum works by converting potential energy into kinetic energy as it swings back and forth. The force of gravity pulls the pendulum towards its equilibrium position, while the tension in the string or rod keeps it swinging back and forth.

What factors affect the motion of a back and forth pendulum?

The motion of a back and forth pendulum can be affected by several factors, including the length of the pendulum, the angle at which it is released, and the presence of air resistance. These factors can change the period, or time it takes for the pendulum to complete one full swing.

What is the formula for calculating the period of a back and forth pendulum?

The formula for calculating the period of a back and forth pendulum is T = 2π√(L/g), where T is the period in seconds, L is the length of the pendulum in meters, and g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²). This formula is known as the simple pendulum equation.

What are some real-world applications of back and forth pendulums?

Back and forth pendulums have many practical applications, such as timekeeping in clocks, regulating the swing of a grandfather clock, and measuring seismic activity in seismometers. They are also used in various scientific experiments to study the principles of simple harmonic motion and energy conservation.

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