- #1
Susanne217
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Homework Statement
Hi
I seem to remember that if you have a homogenous ODE
y'' + p(t)y' + q(t)y = 0 which have the solutions y1 and y2. Where we are told that
y1(t) [tex]\neq 0[/tex]
then y1 and y2 are linear independent.
I found the simular claim on sosmath.com but are they simply saying as long as y1 is not a multiplum of y2 then y1 and y2 will always be linear independent?
THis is very confusing because I learned in linear algebra that in order for vectors to be linear independent then the weight c1=c2 = 0 and if for instance c1 = 1 and c2 = 2 then they are linear dependent.If you people get my point?