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Converting an Integral to a Rieman Sum |
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| Aug18-12, 03:45 AM | #1 |
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Converting an Integral to a Rieman Sum
I know I should know this, but how would one convert a typical integral into a Rieman Sum?
∫0n sinx + x dx for whatever n. for example. |
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| Aug18-12, 04:21 AM | #2 |
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| Aug18-12, 09:23 AM | #3 |
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Well, since the function [itex]\,f(x)=\sin x + x\,[/itex] is continuous everywhere, it is Riemann integrable in any finite interval, and we can choose any partition for it we want, for example the partition [tex]x_0=0\,,\,x_1=\frac{n}{k}\,,\,x_2=\frac{2n}{k},...,x_k=\frac{kn}{k}=n[/tex] for the interval [itex]\,[0,n]\,[/itex] , thus [tex]\int_0^n (\sin x +x)dx=\lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{1}{k}\sum_{i=1}^k \left( \sin \frac{in}{k}+\frac{in}{k} \right)[/tex] DonAntonio |
| Aug19-12, 10:48 PM | #4 |
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Recognitions:
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Converting an Integral to a Rieman Sum
To add to Don Antonio's comment:
1) Partition your domain of integration [a,b] into a collection a=x0, x1,....,xn=b . 2)Select a point xi* in each (xi-1,xi). 3)Form the sum Ʃi=1,..,Nf(xi*)(xi-xi-1) In your case, f(xi*)=xi*+sin(xi*) |
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