Register to reply 
Magnetic moment of the Muon and Tau 
Share this thread: 
#1
Nov513, 11:24 AM

P: 94

For the electron, wiki lists its magnetic moment as −1.00115965218076(27) μB. It does not list it for the Muon or Tau. Wiki does show for the Muon the Anomalous magnetic dipole moment of 0.00116592089. Is it correct to assume the magnetic moment of the Muon is 1.00116592089 μB?
For the Tau, wiki does not show either a magnetic moment or an anomalous magnetic dipole moment. What is the magnetic moment of the Tau? A google search produces results like http://arxiv.org/pdf/hepph/0702027v1.pdf but unfortunately, the article is beyond my pay grade for understanding. 


#2
Nov513, 11:49 AM

Sci Advisor
Thanks
P: 4,160




#3
Nov513, 12:16 PM

Mentor
P: 11,890

Muon: Right
The MEG experiment is much more sensitive than the upper limit on the branching ratio used in the paper, so the measurements improved since then (>2 orders of magnitude). 


#4
Nov513, 02:56 PM

P: 94

Magnetic moment of the Muon and Tau
Great thanks, wonder why wiki doesn't just say:
Electron: −1.00115965218076(27) μB Muon: 1.00116592089 μB and Tau: 1.0011769 μB 


#5
Nov1913, 09:56 PM

P: 530

Strictly speaking, it's only the electron that has a magnetic moment close to 1 Bohr magneton. The other charged leptons (electron flavors) have much smaller magnetic moments. That's because the Bohr magneton is the Dirac value of the electron's magnetic moment. In general, the Dirac value is
q/(2m) for charge q, mass m, hbar = c = 1 The anomalous magnetic moment a is defined be (magnetic moment) = (Dirac magnetic moment) * (1 + a) So (MM, muon) ~ 1/200 * (MM, electron) and (MM,tau) ~ 1/1800 * (MM, electron) 


#6
Nov2013, 02:01 PM

P: 94

Thanks for the message, it is different from the others and makes sense to me. You are suggesting the better estimates would be:
Electron: about −1.0 μB Muon: 0.005 μB and Tau: 0.0005 μB Also, given the confusion in the answers, do you know any online references I could use? Would not it make more sense for the Muon to be 200 * (MM electron) rather then 1/200 * (MM electron)? Ie. wouldn't it be a lot harder to flip a Muon then it is to flip an Electron? Much appreciate the help with this. 


#7
Nov2313, 02:35 AM

P: 530

Another case of macroscopic intuitions causing trouble. I'll give a handwaving argument for an elementary particle's magnetic moment.
Angular momentum J = m*((r)x(v)) Magnetic moment mu = (1/2)*q*((r)x(v)) mu = (q/(2m))*J for (charge distribution) ~ (mass distribution) Strictly speaking, mu = g*(q/(2m))*J For orbital angular momentum, g = 1 For an elementary fermion's spin, g = 2 


Register to reply 
Related Discussions  
Time Dilation and Muon Energy vs. height (Muon Experiment)  Special & General Relativity  2  
Why does the magnetic moment of a nucleon line up with a uniform magnetic field?  Classical Physics  1  
Hydrogen atom, muon substitution, helium muon fusion  Advanced Physics Homework  4  
Muon magnetic field question  General Physics  6  
Why is the electric dipole moment of an atom zero, but the magnetic moment nonzero?  Quantum Physics  9 